A 50-year-old male with a history of smoking presents with sudden onset of tearing chest pain radiating to the back. A CT scan shows a dissection flap in the descending aorta. What is the most appropriate initial management?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A descending aortic dissection is managed medically with beta-blockers and blood pressure control to reduce shear stress on the aortic wall.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Cephalexin (Keflex®) is a poor choice because it doesn't cover Pasteurella multocida, a common pathogen in cat bites.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Hemoptysis, pneumothorax, and extensive pulmonary destruction are all recognized pulmonary complications of tuberculosis, making 'All of the above' correct.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Untreated obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is well-documented to increase perioperative risks, including respiratory and cardiovascular complications, due to airway obstruction and hypoxemia. This is supported by extensive literature, including ASA guidelines, making this the correct statement.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Lusitropic impairment refers to an energy-requiring process that removes free calcium ions from the cytoplasm by pumping them back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum and across the cell membrane into the extracellular fluid. Ischemia interferes with this process in the active phase of diastolic relaxation. Poor contractile force is not associated with lusitropic impairment. The conduction rate is not associated with the energy-requiring process known as lusitropy. Automaticity is not a factor in lusitropy.