A 46-year-old woman with delayed hemolysis post-transfusion. Pathogenesis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Recipient antibodies vs. donor. Delayed hemolysis post-transfusion is often due to the recipient developing antibodies against the donor's red blood cells. This immune response can lead to hemolysis days to weeks after the transfusion. Options A and B are incorrect as they do not involve an immune response causing hemolysis. Option D involves a different type of immune response (IgE vs. IgA) that is not typically responsible for delayed hemolysis post-transfusion.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it demonstrates active listening and empathy, allowing the patient to express their concerns fully. By saying "Tell me more about your fear," the healthcare provider acknowledges the patient's feelings and opens up a dialogue to address their specific worries. This approach can help build trust and rapport, leading to a more effective therapeutic relationship. Choice A is incorrect as it generalizes the patient's fear without addressing the individual's concerns. Choice B is also incorrect as it jumps to suggesting medication without fully understanding the root of the patient's fear. Choice D, although true, does not directly address the patient's emotional needs or provide support in coping with their fear of dying.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The most concerning symptom for a patient on cyclosporine post-transplant is nontender groin swelling (Choice B) due to the risk of developing nephrotoxicity from cyclosporine. Groin swelling may indicate lymphoproliferative disorder or nephrotic syndrome, both associated with cyclosporine use. Bleeding gums (Choice A) may be due to gum disease but are not directly related to cyclosporine. Occasional nausea (Choice C) is a common side effect of cyclosporine but is usually mild and not as concerning. Numbness and tingling of feet (Choice D) may indicate peripheral neuropathy, which can be a side effect of cyclosporine but is less concerning than the potential kidney damage indicated by groin swelling.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: Von Willebrand factor plays a crucial role in primary hemostasis by binding platelets to the subendothelium at sites of vascular injury, facilitating platelet adhesion and aggregation. This is important for forming a platelet plug to stop bleeding. Choices A and C are incorrect because von Willebrand factor does not directly bind platelets to each other or to a phospholipid surface. Choice D is incorrect because von Willebrand factor does not carry factor VII, but it does carry factor VIII.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reed-Sternberg cell. These large, abnormal cells are characteristic of Hodgkin lymphoma. They originate from B cells but have lost most B cell markers. They express CD30 and CD15. A is incorrect as Hodgkin lymphoma is not derived from cytotoxic T cells. B is incorrect as it is not a malignancy involving NK cells. D is incorrect as Hodgkin lymphoma does not involve CD33+ clonal B cells.