ATI LPN
Medical Surgical Endocrine Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 45-year-old woman has had angina pectoris, polyuria, and polydipsia for the past 5 years. On physical examination, she has a body mass index of 32. Laboratory studies show her hemoglobin A1c is 10%. Urinalysis shows proteinuria, but no ketonuria. The representative microscopic appearance of her kidneys is shown in the figure. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism leading to the disease causing her findings?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nodular glomerulosclerosis, as shown in the figure, is a characteristic feature of renal involvement in diabetes mellitus and explains her proteinuria (which may progress to nephrotic syndrome). Peripheral insulin resistance is strongly linked to type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her history is classic for type 2 diabetes, as is the elevated hemoglobin A1c.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following is found in rigor mortis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rigor mortis involves rigid contraction due to ATP depletion locking myosin to actin; Ca2+ leaks but doesn't 'build up', tropomyosin shifts.
Question 3 of 5
Which statement is false regarding blood flow and phase of the cardiac cycle?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When pulmonary artery pressure is lower than ventricle, blood flows out (systole).
Question 4 of 5
The common pathway of coagulation ends with the:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Fibrin forms the clot, ending the common pathway.
Question 5 of 5
Activated c3b to the cell wall of an infected cell or pathogen is the end-result of which of the following pathway(s)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: All three complement pathways (classical, lectin, alternative) converge to activate C3b.