A 45-year-old morbidly obese man with a history of untreated obstructive sleep apnea and type II diabetes presents with lower extremity swelling in 3 months of progressive shortness of breath. A transthoracic echocardiogram performed revealed severe pulmonary hypertension with a right ventricular systolic pressure of 85 mmHg with preserved right ventricular function. The patient's vital signs are normal except for an oxygen saturation of 85% while he is breathing ambient air. He has elevated jugular venous pressures, as well as a loud P2 component of the 2nd heart sound on cardiac auscultation. His lung examination is clear. He has no rash or synovitis. Which one of the following tests is most appropriate next step for better identifying the cause of this patient's hypoxemia and peripheral edema?

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Cardiovascular Multiple Choice Questions and Answers Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 45-year-old morbidly obese man with a history of untreated obstructive sleep apnea and type II diabetes presents with lower extremity swelling in 3 months of progressive shortness of breath. A transthoracic echocardiogram performed revealed severe pulmonary hypertension with a right ventricular systolic pressure of 85 mmHg with preserved right ventricular function. The patient's vital signs are normal except for an oxygen saturation of 85% while he is breathing ambient air. He has elevated jugular venous pressures, as well as a loud P2 component of the 2nd heart sound on cardiac auscultation. His lung examination is clear. He has no rash or synovitis. Which one of the following tests is most appropriate next step for better identifying the cause of this patient's hypoxemia and peripheral edema?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: An arterial blood gas (ABG) is the most direct way to assess hypoxemia severity and type (e.g., hypoventilation vs. shunt) in this patient with pulmonary hypertension and OSA. It guides further workup for causes like chronic hypoxemia contributing to edema and PH, per pulmonary guidelines.

Question 2 of 5

A patient is being discharged home after hospitalization of left ventricular systolic dysfunction. As the nurse providing discharge teaching to the patient, which statement is NOT a correct statement about this condition?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Left ventricular systolic dysfunction primarily causes pulmonary congestion leading to symptoms like dyspnea and cough. Hepatic vein congestion and peripheral edema are characteristic of right-sided heart failure, not directly left-sided systolic dysfunction.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse obtains the following information from a patient newly diagnosed with elevated blood pressure. Which finding is most important to address with the patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The recommendations for preventing hypertension include exercising aerobically for 30 minutes most days of the week. A weight that is 5 pounds over the ideal body weight is not a risk factor for hypertension. The Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) diet is high in fiber but increasing fiber alone will not prevent hypertension from developing. The patient's alcohol intake is within guidelines and will not increase the hypertension risk.

Question 4 of 5

In a normal heart, the sinoatrial node

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The sinoatrial node, the heart's pacemaker, has autorhythmic cells that initiate action potentials, triggering heartbeats.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with hypertension. Which result is most important to communicate to the health care provider?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The elevated creatinine indicates renal damage caused by the hypertension. The other laboratory results are normal.

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