A 4-year-old with cerebral palsy is being prepared for rehabilitative services. Which nursing intervention will help ready the child?

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LPN Fundamentals of Nursing Course Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 4-year-old with cerebral palsy is being prepared for rehabilitative services. Which nursing intervention will help ready the child?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Suckers and pinwheels strengthen tongue movement in cerebral palsy, aiding speech and swallowing for rehab patching, music, or games target different goals. Nurses use this, enhancing oral motor skills, preparing kids for therapy in this neurologic condition.

Question 2 of 5

GFR is increased by :

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) reflects kidney filtration capacity. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) (choice A) increases GFR by dilating afferent arterioles and constricting efferent ones, boosting filtration in response to high blood volume. Histamine (choice B) affects local inflammation, not GFR directly. Vasopressin (choice C) reduces GFR by conserving water via tubular reabsorption, not filtration. Endothelium (choice D) is a tissue, not a substance, and likely a typo (endothelin constricts vessels, lowering GFR). A is correct, as ANP's vasodilatory effect enhances GFR. Nurses monitor this in heart failure or hypertension, adjusting care for renal perfusion.

Question 3 of 5

Sunset sign is seen in the following condition:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Sunset sign downward eye deviation exposing sclera indicates neurological issues. Pyloric stenosis (choice A) causes vomiting, not eye signs. Hydrocephalus (choice B) raises intracranial pressure, pressing the brainstem, causing sunset sign as cranial nerves (III/VI) are affected. Tetralogy of Fallot (choice C) is cardiac, unrelated. Seizures (choice D) may alter gaze but not consistently this way. B is correct, a classic hydrocephalus feature. Nurses note it, measure head circumference, and support shunt placement, addressing pressure.

Question 4 of 5

The client has a chronic tissue injury. Upon examining the client's antibody for a particular cellular response, Which of the following WBC component is responsible for phagocytosis in chronic tissue injury?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In chronic tissue injury, monocytes (D) are the key white blood cells (WBCs) for phagocytosis. They transform into macrophages, which persist in tissues, engulfing debris and pathogens over time. Neutrophils (A) dominate acute inflammation, arriving early but dying off quickly. Basophils (B) release histamine in allergic responses, not phagocytosis. Eosinophils (C) target parasites and allergies, not chronic injury cleanup. Chronic conditions require sustained immune action, and monocytes/macrophages excel here, unlike the short-lived neutrophils of acute phases. This cellular adaptation to prolonged injury makes D the correct choice.

Question 5 of 5

Lorraine, a 27 year old executive was brought to the ER for an unknown reason. She is starting to speak but her speech is disorganized and cannot be understood. On what level of anxiety does this features belongs?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Lorraine's disorganized, unintelligible speech indicates panic-level anxiety (D). Mild (A) enhances alertness; moderate (B) narrows focus but allows communication; severe (C) impairs function but speech remains coherent. Panic, the highest level, causes extreme disorganization, as seen here, with loss of rational thought and communication, per anxiety scales (e.g., Peplau). Her ER presentation aligns with panic's chaos, making D correct.

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