A 35-year-old male patient presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever for the past 48 hours, preceded by new onset jaundice over the past few weeks. He states that he has had diarrhea on and off for several years but never had this investigated. A liver ultrasound is negative for gallstones or evidence of cholecystitis. His lab tests reveal total bilirubin 6.2, alkaline phosphatase 450, AST 150, ALT 120, albumin 2.6. The next diagnostic test of choice would be

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP). Given the patient's clinical presentation of right upper quadrant pain, fever, jaundice, and abnormal liver function tests, MRCP is the next diagnostic test of choice to evaluate the biliary tree and pancreatic ducts for possible obstruction or structural abnormalities. This would help identify the cause of the patient's symptoms, such as biliary obstruction or choledocholithiasis. Choice A: Liver biopsy is not the next step in this scenario as the patient's symptoms are suggestive of a biliary or pancreatic etiology rather than a primary liver pathology. Choice C: Hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis C RNA assay may be relevant for evaluating viral hepatitis, but in this case, the patient's symptoms and lab results are more indicative of a biliary or pancreatic issue. Choice D: Colonoscopy with biopsies is not the next appropriate step as the patient's symptoms and lab results are not

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cytomegalovirus. Cytomegalovirus is a common cause of acute pancreatitis in immunocompromised patients. The virus can infect the pancreas leading to inflammation. HIV (A) can also cause pancreatitis, but it is typically due to opportunistic infections like CMV rather than the virus itself. Dideoxyinosine (ddI) (C) and Pentamidine (D) are medications that can cause pancreatitis, but they are not the primary cause in this case.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: C is false because eradication of H. pylori does not completely prevent adenocarcinoma of the stomach, although it reduces the risk. A is true as H. pylori can invade epithelium. B is true as it can stimulate acid secretion. D is true as H. pylori produces urease. Thus, C is the only false statement.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Measure serum gastrin in response to secretin infusion. This step is necessary to confirm the diagnosis of gastrinoma. Secretin stimulation test is used to differentiate between Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (gastrinoma) and other causes of hypergastrinemia. If serum gastrin levels remain elevated after secretin infusion, it supports the diagnosis of gastrinoma. Choice A: Refer her for an exploratory laparotomy - This is an invasive procedure and should not be the first step in the investigation of gastrinoma. Choice C: Treat her for H. pylori - This is not indicated in the management of suspected gastrinoma. H. pylori infection is not a likely cause of the symptoms described. Choice D: Obtain a dedicated small bowel series - This test is not typically used in the initial evaluation of gastrinoma. The secretin stimulation test is the preferred method for confirming the diagnosis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 81 mg of aspirin per day decreases the benefit of using a COX II inhibitor. Aspirin, a non-selective COX inhibitor, can interfere with the action of selective COX II inhibitors by competing for the same binding site on the COX enzyme. This competition can limit the effectiveness of the COX II inhibitor in reducing inflammation and pain. This is particularly important in patients with a history of chronic iron deficiency anemia who may require NSAIDs for pain management. Option A is incorrect because a dedicated small bowel series may not necessarily be positive for identifying the source of blood loss in this patient. Option C is incorrect as a provocative arteriogram with heparin infusion is an invasive procedure and not typically indicated as a first-line investigation for blood loss in patients with iron deficiency anemia. Option D is incorrect as hormonal therapy is not typically used to decrease blood loss from arteriovenous malformations.