ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 30-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Symptoms of fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia point to diabetes. Step 2: Hyperglycemia and ketonuria suggest uncontrolled diabetes. Step 3: Onset in a 30-year-old woman is more common in Type 1 diabetes. Step 4: Type 1 diabetes is characterized by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells leading to insulin deficiency. Step 5: Treatment for Type 1 diabetes involves insulin therapy. Summary: - Choice B (Type 2 diabetes) is less likely due to the acute presentation and ketonuria. - Choice C (Diabetes insipidus) does not involve hyperglycemia or ketonuria. - Choice D (Hyperthyroidism) does not typically present with hyperglycemia and ketonuria.
Question 2 of 5
A client who is acutely ill has vigilant oral care included in their plan of care. What factor increases this client's risk for dental caries?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because inadequate nutrition and reduced saliva production contribute to cavities. In acute illness, the client may not be able to consume a balanced diet, leading to nutrient deficiencies that weaken teeth. Reduced saliva flow decreases the mouth's ability to naturally clean and protect teeth. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because hormonal changes from stress do not directly lead to acidic oral environment, systemic infections do not commonly affect teeth, and lack of fluoride from intravenous hydration is not a primary factor for dental caries.
Question 3 of 5
After undergoing rigid fixation for a mandibular fracture from a fight, what area of care should the nurse prioritize for discharge education for this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because promoting adequate nutrition is crucial for optimal healing of mandibular fractures. Malnutrition can delay recovery and impair bone healing. The nurse should prioritize educating the client on ways to maintain a balanced diet, such as consuming foods rich in protein, vitamins, and minerals. A: Resumption of activities of daily living is important, but nutrition is more critical for healing. B: Pain control is essential, but ensuring proper nutrition is a higher priority for optimal recovery. D: Strategies for promoting adequate nutrition is redundant and less specific compared to the correct answer.
Question 4 of 5
After a client's neck dissection surgery resulted in damage to the superior laryngeal nerve, what area of assessment should the nurse prioritize?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client's swallowing ability. Damage to the superior laryngeal nerve can lead to swallowing difficulties, as it innervates the muscles involved in swallowing. Prioritizing assessment of swallowing ability is crucial to prevent aspiration and ensure adequate nutrition intake. Incorrect choices: B: The client's ability to speak - Damage to the superior laryngeal nerve mainly affects swallowing, not speech. C: The client's management of secretions - While important, it is secondary to swallowing assessment in this context. D: The client's airway patency - Although important, focusing on swallowing ability is more directly related to the nerve damage.
Question 5 of 5
A client returns to the unit after a neck dissection. The surgeon placed a Jackson-Pratt drain in the wound. When assessing the wound drainage over the first 24 postoperative hours, what finding would prompt the nurse to notify the health care provider immediately?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 60 mL of milky or cloudy drainage. This finding could indicate the presence of an infection, which is a serious complication post-neck dissection. Milky or cloudy drainage may contain pus, indicating the need for immediate intervention to prevent further complications. A: Presence of small blood clots in the drainage is relatively common and may not necessarily indicate a problem unless there are large clots or excessive bleeding. C: Spots of drainage on the dressings surrounding the drain are expected and do not necessarily warrant immediate notification unless there is excessive leakage. D: 120 mL of serosanguinous drainage is within the expected range for the first 24 hours postoperatively and may not be a cause for immediate concern unless there are other symptoms present.