A 26-year-old man with family history of colon cancer. Highest risk genetic mutation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: APC. This gene mutation is associated with familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP), a condition characterized by hundreds to thousands of colorectal polyps and a high risk of developing colon cancer. FAP is an autosomal dominant disorder, so individuals with a family history of colon cancer are at highest risk for having an APC mutation. MEN1 (choice A) is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1, RET (choice B) with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2, and MSH (choice D) with Lynch syndrome - all of which are not specifically linked to colon cancer in the context of this question.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypercalcemia. In lung cancer, paraneoplastic syndromes can occur due to tumor-secreted substances affecting distant organs. Hypercalcemia is commonly associated with lung cancer and can cause confusion. SIADH (B) is more common in small cell lung cancer. Hypoglycemia (C) is not a typical paraneoplastic syndrome in lung cancer. Migratory thrombophlebitis (D) is associated with pancreatic cancer, not lung cancer.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because taking aspirin can worsen thrombocytopenia by further reducing platelet function, leading to increased risk of bleeding. Aspirin is a known blood thinner and can exacerbate the condition in a patient with low platelet count. Choices A, B, and D are not as concerning because bruising easily, soft dark bowel movements, and decreased appetite can be common side effects of chemotherapy and not directly related to worsening thrombocytopenia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Administering oral cyclosporine is crucial for managing GVHD post-transplant. 2. Cyclosporine suppresses the immune response, reducing GVHD symptoms. 3. It is essential to maintain therapeutic drug levels for efficacy. 4. Assessing for infection signs (Choice B) and educating about infection prevention (Choice D) are important but not the immediate priority. 5. Infusing D5NS at 125 mL/hr (Choice C) is not indicated for GVHD management.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: SS. In sickle cell anemia, the genetic pattern is homozygous for the sickle cell gene (HbS), resulting in the genotype SS. This means both copies of the hemoglobin gene are mutated, leading to the production of abnormal hemoglobin. Choice A (AS) indicates a carrier of the sickle cell trait with one normal and one mutated gene. Choice B (AA) represents a normal individual with two normal hemoglobin genes. Choice D (AF) is an incorrect combination as there is no such genetic pattern associated with sickle cell anemia.