72 y/o female presented to the ER due to acute onset of severe abdominal pain and bloating. She was found to have a perforated gastric ulcer and underwent a gastrectomy. Upon returning home she noted postprandial N/V/D with diaphoresis, palpitations, and flushing. What is the most likely etiology?

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Cardiovascular Multiple Choice Questions and Answers Questions

Question 1 of 5

72 y/o female presented to the ER due to acute onset of severe abdominal pain and bloating. She was found to have a perforated gastric ulcer and underwent a gastrectomy. Upon returning home she noted postprandial N/V/D with diaphoresis, palpitations, and flushing. What is the most likely etiology?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Dumping syndrome occurs after gastrectomy due to rapid gastric emptying into the small intestine, causing osmotic shifts and symptoms like nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and flushing.

Question 2 of 5

After 'having a few', your patient made the mistake of talking politics with a couple of strangers. Badly bruised, he now presents to your office/ER with a swollen hand with multiple lacerations that, as best he recalls, were the result of punching someone in the mouth. Some appear infected. All but which of the following would be considered poor choices?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin®) is effective against both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria commonly found in human bites.

Question 3 of 5

What is the most important measure to prevent contrast-induced AKI in a patient with CKD?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Holding metformin is critical in preventing contrast-induced AKI in CKD patients, as it reduces the risk of lactic acidosis if renal function declines.

Question 4 of 5

A 45-year-old morbidly obese man with a history of untreated obstructive sleep apnea and type II diabetes presents with lower extremity swelling in 3 months of progressive shortness of breath. A transthoracic echocardiogram performed revealed severe pulmonary hypertension with a right ventricular systolic pressure of 85 mmHg with preserved right ventricular function. The patient's vital signs are normal except for an oxygen saturation of 85% while he is breathing ambient air. He has elevated jugular venous pressures, as well as a loud P2 component of the 2nd heart sound on cardiac auscultation. His lung examination is clear. He has no rash or synovitis. Which one of the following tests is most appropriate next step for better identifying the cause of this patient's hypoxemia and peripheral edema?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: An arterial blood gas (ABG) is the most direct way to assess hypoxemia severity and type (e.g., hypoventilation vs. shunt) in this patient with pulmonary hypertension and OSA. It guides further workup for causes like chronic hypoxemia contributing to edema and PH, per pulmonary guidelines.

Question 5 of 5

Which dysrhythmia is thought to be associated with reentrant mechanisms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Reentry is a complex process in which a cardiac impulse continues to depolarize in a part of the heart after the main impulse has finished its path and the majority of the fibers have repolarized. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is caused by accessory pathways that originate in the atria, bypass the AV node, and enter a site in the ventricular myocardium. This causes the ventricles to contract prematurely, resulting in a reentrant tachycardia. Second-degree block is a conduction failure between the sinus impulse and its ventricular response. Sinus bradycardia is a slowed impulse generation by the sinus node. A junctional escape rhythm originates in the AV node.

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