ATI LPN
Cardiovascular Disease Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
50 yo female with a 25-year history of migraine headaches with visual auras presents for her clinic visit and has been having them more frequently(once a week). What would you suggest next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An increase in frequency of migraines with aura should prompt further investigation such as an MRI to rule out underlying structural abnormalities.
Question 2 of 5
Which serologic test is the main method for diagnosis of acute infection by hantaviruses?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Anti-hantavirus IgM is the primary serologic test for diagnosing acute hantavirus infection because it indicates recent exposure and active infection.
Question 3 of 5
A 70-year-old woman hospitalized one week ago for acute on chronic kidney injury. Since her hospitalization, she has been receiving hemodialysis through a temporary femoral catheter. Last night she developed a fever 101.7°F. On examination, she is confused; blood pressure 76/40 mmHg the heart rate of 108 b/min. Weight is 60 kg(132 pounds). She is adequate peripheral venous access and is given a 1-liter bolus of normal intravenous saline over 30 minutes. After receiving fluids, her blood pressure is 78/44 mmHg. Oxygen saturation 96% breathing ambient air. Cardiac examination is a regular tachycardia rhythm. There is no jugular venous distention. There is erythema without purulent drainage noted at the femoral catheter site. The extremities are warm with bounding pulses without edema. Data: Hemoglobin 9 g/dL; leukocytosis 16,000; Creatinine 2.6; Potassium 5.6 mEq/L. Blood cultures are growing gram-positive cocci. A chest radiograph is normal. EKG shows sinus tachycardia without ischemia. In addition to replacing the hemodialysis catheter which of the following is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient is in septic shock likely due to catheter-related bloodstream infection. Additional fluid resuscitation is necessary to stabilize hemodynamics before considering vasopressors or other interventions.
Question 4 of 5
The therapy that most directly improves cardiac contractility in a patient with systolic heart failure is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Digitalis may be used for symptom management of heart failure. Cardiac glycosides directly inhibit the sodium-potassium pump present in the cell membrane of all cells. The intracellular changes allow more calcium to remain in the cell, thus strengthening myocardial contraction. Contractility is not improved through afterload reduction. Beta-blockers inhibit the effects of sympathetic activation and have the potential to reduce cardiac output. Preload reduction is not the therapy of choice in improving cardiac contractility.
Question 5 of 5
Right-sided heart failure is usually a consequence of
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Because the right and left ventricles function in tandem, left-ventricular failure eventually increases the workload on the right ventricle. Consequently, the right ventricle may fail causing infarction. Pulmonary disorders create a high afterload on the right ventricle and may cause a progression to right ventricular failure. Tricuspid valve defects are not the cause of right-sided heart failure. Congenital anomalies are not generally associated with right-sided failure.