ATI LPN
Hematologic System Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
36-year-old with 15% myeloblasts, reduced erythropoiesis. Cause?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acute myeloid leukemia. The key clues are the presence of 15% myeloblasts and reduced erythropoiesis. In AML, there is an abnormal increase in myeloblasts in the bone marrow, leading to reduced production of normal blood cells, including erythrocytes. Myelofibrosis (C) is characterized by fibrotic changes in the bone marrow, not an increase in blasts. ALL (B) primarily affects lymphoid cells, not myeloblasts. MDS (D) involves ineffective hematopoiesis and dysplastic changes, but not necessarily a high blast count.
Question 2 of 5
First immunoglobulin in primary response, passed from mother to fetus?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. IgM is the first immunoglobulin produced in primary immune response. 2. It is released by plasma cells when an antigen is encountered. 3. IgM is efficient in agglutination and complement activation. Summary of incorrect choices: A: IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas. C: IgE is involved in allergic reactions. D: IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the bloodstream.
Question 3 of 5
Which drug is a platelet inhibitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clopidogrel (Plavix). Clopidogrel is a platelet inhibitor that works by inhibiting the platelet activation and aggregation process. It specifically targets the ADP receptor on platelets, preventing them from clumping together. This action helps to prevent blood clots from forming, making it an effective antiplatelet medication. Enoxaparin (B) is a low molecular weight heparin that works by inhibiting factors Xa and IIa, making it an anticoagulant rather than a platelet inhibitor. Reteplase (C) is a thrombolytic agent that works by converting plasminogen to plasmin, aiding in the breakdown of blood clots. Warfarin (D) is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors.
Question 4 of 5
At which stage of life are people most commonly diagnosed with PIDD?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Infancy. Primary Immunodeficiency Disorders (PIDD) are typically diagnosed in infancy due to recurrent infections and failure to thrive. Infants with PIDD often exhibit severe and persistent infections, making diagnosis more apparent at this stage. In contrast, early childhood (A) and adolescence (C) are less common stages for PIDD diagnosis due to the immune system maturing and symptoms becoming more noticeable in infancy. Early adulthood (D) is also less common as PIDD is usually identified earlier in life.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is addressing condom use in the context of a health promotion workshop. When discussing the correct use of condoms, which instruction should the nurse give the attendees?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hold the condom during withdrawal so it doesn't come off. This is crucial to prevent slippage and potential exposure to sexually transmitted infections or unintended pregnancy. Holding the condom during withdrawal maintains its position and reduces the risk of breakage. A: Applying the condom prior to erection is incorrect as it may lead to slippage. B: Reusing a condom is unsafe and increases the risk of breakage and transmission of infections. C: Using skin lotion as a lubricant is not recommended as it can damage the condom and increase the risk of breakage.