ATI LPN
PN Pharmacology 2023 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has Graves' disease and is to start therapy with propylthiouracil. The nurse should expect which of the following outcomes?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased heart rate. Propylthiouracil is an antithyroid medication that inhibits the synthesis of thyroid hormones. In Graves' disease, there is excessive production of thyroid hormones leading to symptoms like tachycardia. By decreasing the levels of thyroid hormones, propylthiouracil can help normalize the heart rate. Decreased WBC count (
B) and increased Hgb (
C) are not expected outcomes of propylthiouracil therapy. Increased blood pressure (
D) is not a direct effect of propylthiouracil in treating Graves' disease.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has prescriptions for spironolactone and lisinopril. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to elevated potassium levels. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can also contribute to hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent serious complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Hypoglycemia (
B) and hyperglycemia (
D) are not typically associated with these medications. Hypokalemia (
C) is the opposite of the expected effect.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer 1 L of IV fluid over 6 hr. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: 167 mL/hr
Rationale:
To calculate the IV pump rate, divide the total volume (1L = 1000mL) by the total time in hours (6hr).
1000mL / 6hr = 166.67 mL/hr, rounded to the nearest whole number is 167 mL/hr.
This rate ensures the administration of 1L over 6 hours.
Option A: Incorrect as it does not match the calculated rate.
Options B-G: Irrelevant as they do not align with the correct calculation.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is collecting data from a client who is taking high doses of aspirin to treat rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings indicates that the client has salicylism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tinnitus. Salicylism is an aspirin toxicity characterized by symptoms like tinnitus, dizziness, and hearing loss. Tinnitus is a common early sign of salicylism due to its ototoxic effects. Nuchal rigidity (choice
B) is not typically associated with salicylism but rather with meningitis. Pharyngitis (choice
C) is inflammation of the throat and is not a common manifestation of salicylism. Pruritus (choice
D) refers to itching and is not a typical symptom of salicylism.
Therefore, the presence of tinnitus is the most indicative of salicylism in a client taking high doses of aspirin.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is to start using a scopolamine patch for postoperative nausea and vomiting. Which of the following findings is a contraindication for the client to receive the medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Narrow-angle glaucoma. Scopolamine can worsen narrow-angle glaucoma by causing pupil dilation, leading to increased intraocular pressure. This can result in acute glaucoma crisis, potentially causing irreversible vision damage. Ménière's disease (
A) is not a contraindication. Increased lacrimation (
B) and urinary frequency (
D) are common side effects of scopolamine but not contraindications. In this scenario, the focus is on identifying a condition that could be exacerbated by scopolamine, making narrow-angle glaucoma the correct choice.