ATI LPN
ATI LPN Mental Health Exam IV Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 46-year-old African American man is in an outpatient clinic for a physical examination. His blood pressure (BP) is 126 mm Hg, his body mass index (BMI) is 24, and he reports no previous medical problems. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: African American men have a higher prostate cancer risk, with screening (PSA test) recommended from age 45. BP of 126 mm Hg is normal (<120/80 mm Hg), and BMI 24 is healthy (18.5–24.9), so annual visits, weight loss, or hypertension advice aren’t urgent. PSA screening aligns with age and risk profile.
Question 2 of 5
An abuser with severe aggression is prescribed medication for his condition. Which of the following may be prescribed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Atypical antipsychotic: Atypical antipsychotics can be used to manage severe aggression and agitation, especially in individuals with underlying psychiatric disorders. Hypnotic: Hypnotics are used for sleep disorders and are not indicated for managing aggression. Antipyretics: Antipyretics are used to reduce fever and are not relevant to treating aggression. Antabuse: Antabuse (disulfiram) is used to treat alcohol dependence and is not indicated for managing aggression.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy to prevent deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available in the event of an overdose?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Vitamin K reverses warfarin overdose by restoring clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X), countering its anticoagulant effect. Epinephrine (
A) treats anaphylaxis, atropine (
C) bradycardia, and protamine (
D) heparin—not warfarin. Vitamin K is the specific antidote.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to see in this client? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A, C, D
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary congestion:
A) Dyspnea from fluid in lungs;
C) Orthopnea from lying flat, worsening lung fluid;
D) Crackles from alveolar fluid.
B) Jugular vein distention is right-sided failure’s systemic congestion sign. A, C, D reflect left-sided pathology.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is reinforcing teaching about warfarin with a client who has a new onset of atrial fibrillation. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Warfarin prevents strokes in atrial fibrillation by reducing clot formation (via vitamin K inhibition), not dissolving clots (
A), slowing ventricles (B, antiarrhythmic role), or restoring rhythm (
D). Stroke prevention is its primary role due to atrial clot risk.