ATI LPN
ATI LPN Pharmacology Exam I Questions
Question 1 of 5
To ensure the nurse administers medications to the right client, which method of identification is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Calling the name relies on response accuracy; confused or hearing-impaired patients may not answer correctly, risking misidentification and medication errors. Verbal confirmation plus armband verification against the MAR ensures identity via two identifiers, aligning with safety protocols to prevent administration errors scientifically. Family or visitors may misidentify due to stress or error; this lacks direct patient verification, increasing risk of giving medication to the wrong individual. Bed or door labels can be outdated or misplaced; this indirect method fails to confirm identity actively, heightening the chance of medication misadministration.
Question 2 of 5
Which statement is correct about patient tolerance to medications?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Tolerance reflects receptor desensitization or enzyme induction; higher doses compensate for reduced drug efficacy, a common pharmacological adaptation. Organ failure affects metabolism, not tolerance; tolerance is a cellular response, not solely a failure of liver or kidney drug clearance mechanisms. Stable dosing contradicts tolerance; if tolerance develops, efficacy drops, necessitating dose increases, not maintenance, to achieve therapeutic levels. Non-adherence may alter response, but tolerance occurs with consistent use; it's a physiological adaptation, not a result of misuse or skipping doses.
Question 3 of 5
Which assessment finding indicates that the patient is at risk from polypharmacy? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A,B
Rationale: Multiple pharmacies (
A) increase polypharmacy risk due to potential duplication or interactions from lack of centralized oversight. Five hypertension drugs (
B) signal excessive medications for one condition, heightening interaction risks. Daughter’s help (
C) aids compliance, warfarin tests (
D) manage one drug safely, and allergies (E) affect drug choice, not quantity.
Question 4 of 5
A patient who is to receive a daily medication by the oral route has had nausea and vomiting for the last 24 hours. The best action to ensure that the patient receives the scheduled dose is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Withholding delays treatment; nausea may persist, risking vomiting of the dose if given later, reducing bioavailability and therapeutic effect over time. Sips of water won't prevent vomiting; with ongoing nausea, the oral dose is likely expelled, decreasing absorption and failing to deliver the medication effectively. Crackers may worsen nausea or fail to retain the dose; vomiting risks remain high, compromising oral administration's reliability in this acute condition. Rectal or parenteral routes bypass the stomach, ensuring delivery despite vomiting; this maintains therapeutic levels, critical for efficacy in a nauseated patient.
Question 5 of 5
The physician orders vancomycin 500 mg in 250 mL of D5W IVPB daily to infuse over 2 hours. Tubing drop factor is 15 gtts/mL. Calculate the flow rate in drops per minute.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: 31 gtts/min assumes 250 mL over 4 hours with 15 gtts/mL; this halves the rate, underdelivering vancomycin, risking subtherapeutic levels and ineffective bacterial killing over the prescribed 2-hour infusion time. 62 gtts/min is correct; 250 mL over 2 hours is 125 mL/hr, times 15 gtts/mL equals 1875 gtts total, divided by 120 minutes yields 62 gtts/min, ensuring proper antibiotic delivery. 125 gtts/min doubles the rate; 250 mL in 1 hour with 15 gtts/mL is too fast, risking vancomycin toxicity, including renal damage, and exceeding safe infusion guidelines for IVPB. 250 gtts/min assumes 250 mL in 30 minutes; this dangerously rapid rate could cause vancomycin-induced red man syndrome or cardiovascular overload, far beyond the ordered 2-hour infusion duration.