ATI LPN Pharm Quiz Final | Nurselytic

Correct Answer: 90 mg/dL (NPH) and 70 mg/dL (aspart) are normal/low, less urgent. 120 mg/dL (NPH) is mildly high. 170 mg/dL with rapid-acting lispro needs priority due to significant elevation.

Rationale: The correct answer is D: The patient with a pre-meal glucose level of 170 mg/dL, scheduled to receive 5 units of lispro (Humalog) insulin. This choice is correct because a glucose level of 170 mg/dL is significantly elevated, indicating a need for immediate insulin administration to prevent further hyperglycemia. Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin, which should be administered promptly before breakfast to control the high blood sugar effectively.

Choices A, B, and C have glucose levels within normal or slightly elevated ranges, making them less urgent for immediate insulin administration.
Choice D is the most critical due to the high glucose level and the type of insulin being rapid-acting, requiring prompt action to manage the patient's blood sugar levels effectively.

Correct Answer: Hypoglycemia triggers glucagon, not insulin. Hyperglycemia prompts insulin release to lower blood sugar. Glucagon opposes insulin. Ketoacids indicate low glucose, not insulin trigger.

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperglycemia. When blood sugar levels are high, the pancreas responds by releasing insulin to facilitate the uptake of glucose by cells, thereby lowering blood sugar levels. This is a crucial mechanism to maintain glucose homeostasis in the body. Hypoglycemia (
A) triggers the release of glucagon to raise blood sugar levels, not insulin. Glucagon (
C) is released in response to low blood sugar levels and opposes the action of insulin. Ketoacids (
D) indicate a state of low glucose, not a trigger for insulin secretion.
Therefore, the correct trigger for the pancreas to secrete insulin is hyperglycemia.

Correct Answer: Subcutaneous administration and insulin syringes are correct. A 3 mL syringe lacks insulin unit markings, risking errors. Verification with another nurse is a safety practice.

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Drawing up the ordered dose in a 3 mL syringe is a violation of safe practice when administering insulin. Here's a detailed rationale:

1. Administering ordered insulin subcutaneously (
Choice
A) is correct as insulin is typically administered subcutaneously.
2. Using an insulin syringe to administer the insulin dose (
Choice
B) is correct, as insulin syringes are specifically designed for accurate insulin dosing.
3. Drawing up the ordered dose in a 3 mL syringe (
Choice
C) is incorrect because 3 mL syringes lack insulin unit markings, increasing the risk of dosing errors.
4. Verifying the drawn-up insulin dose with another nurse (
Choice
D) is a safety practice and is correct to ensure accuracy and prevent errors.

In summary, choice C is incorrect because using a 3 mL syringe can lead to dosing errors, while the other choices are safe practices in administering insulin.

Correct Answer: Medication alone isn't most productive. Cognitive behavioral therapy addressing anxiety causes is evidence-based. Self-medication and multiple drugs initially are not recommended.

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uncover and address the cause of anxiety. An evidence-based approach for treating anxiety disorders involves cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) to address the underlying causes of anxiety. By identifying and working through the root causes of anxiety, clients can develop coping strategies and long-term solutions. Providing powerful medications (
A) may only offer temporary relief and not address the underlying issues. Allowing self-medication with OTC medications (
C) can be dangerous and lead to misuse. Immediately starting multiple-drug therapy (
D) can increase the risk of side effects and interactions without addressing the root cause of anxiety. Thus, focusing on uncovering and addressing the causes of anxiety through CBT is the most productive and evidence-based approach.

Correct Answer: Guaifenesin is an expectorant that loosens mucus, making coughing up phlegm a normal response. It's not indicative of more pathology, an allergic reaction, or a need for investigation unless symptoms worsen unusually.

Rationale:
Step 1: Identify the medication's action - Guaifenesin is an expectorant that helps loosen and thin mucus in the airways.

Step 2: Understand the expected response - Coughing up phlegm after taking guaifenesin is a normal response due to the medication's action.

Step 3: Evaluate the other choices - A, B, and C are incorrect because coughing up phlegm is not indicative of more pathology, an allergic reaction, or a need for further investigation in this context.

Step 4: Choose the correct response - Option G correctly acknowledges that coughing up phlegm is a normal response to guaifenesin and does not suggest any unnecessary concerns or actions.