The primary care NP sees a 5-year-old child for a prekindergarten physical examination. The child's parents do not have immunization records, and a local record search does not provide proof of vaccinations, although the parent thinks the child may have had some vaccines several years ago. The NP's initial action will be to:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because without records, assuming unvaccinated and starting the series ensures protection. Choice B is incorrect (titers not practical initially). Choice C is wrong (single doses insufficient). Choice D is inaccurate (registry already checked).

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because without records, assuming unvaccinated and starting the series ensures protection. Choice B is incorrect (titers not practical initially). Choice C is wrong (single doses insufficient). Choice D is inaccurate (registry already checked).

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is correct because irinotecan's active metabolite is glucuronidated by UGT1A1; poor function increases toxicity, requiring genetic consideration. Choice A is incorrect as warfarin's metabolism is via CYP2C9, not UGT1A1. Choice C is wrong because acetaminophen uses other UGT enzymes, not specifically UGT1A1 critically. Choice D is incorrect since only irinotecan is notably affected by UGT1A1 polymorphisms.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because without records, assuming unvaccinated and starting the series ensures protection. Choice B is incorrect (titers not practical initially). Choice C is wrong (single doses insufficient). Choice D is inaccurate (registry already checked).

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is correct because women's lower lean mass reduces the volume of distribution for water-soluble drugs, increasing concentrations and ADR risk. Choice A is incorrect as lipid-soluble drugs distribute more in fat, not necessarily causing more ADRs. Choice C is wrong because protein binding isn't sex-specific enough here. Choice D is incorrect since only water-soluble drugs align.

Correct Answer: S

Rationale: Choice A is correct because clinical judgment involves balancing efficacy, safety, and cost to ensure patients can afford and adhere to treatment, which is critical for successful outcomes. Choice B is incorrect as always choosing the newest medication ignores evidence-based practice; newer drugs may lack long-term data or be unnecessarily expensive. Choice C is wrong because distributing samples isn't a sustainable prescribing strategy and may not meet ongoing needs. Choice D is also incorrect since mandating generics could compromise efficacy if a brand-name drug is clinically necessary.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because loratadine is a nonsedating antihistamine, safer for elderly per Beers criteria, unlike the sedating options B, C, and D, which increase fall risk and cognitive impairment in older adults.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Choice D is correct because frequent agonist use can cause the body to downregulate receptors, reducing sensitivity to overstimulation as a compensatory mechanism. Choice A is incorrect as upregulation occurs with antagonists, not agonists. Choice B is wrong because partial agonists compete, not result from frequent use. Choice C is incorrect since metabolism changes aren't the primary receptor response.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is correct because pseudoephedrine, a decongestant, raises blood pressure via vasoconstriction, risky in hypertension, per guidelines. Choice A is incorrect as acetaminophen doesn't affect BP. Choice C is wrong because ibuprofen's BP effect is milder and not absolute avoidance. Choice D is incorrect since only pseudoephedrine is key.