The parent of a toddler asks the NP about using a topical antihistamine to treat the child's atopic dermatitis symptoms. The NP should tell the parent that:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because children’s thinner skin increases absorption and toxicity risk. Choice A is incorrect (side effects are enhanced). Choice B is wrong (absorption is high). Choice D is inaccurate (liberal application increases risk).

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is correct because sublingual administration allows rapid absorption via the rich blood supply under the tongue, bypassing first-pass metabolism for quick onset. Choice B is incorrect as excretion rate isn't directly affected by this route. Choice C is wrong because minimal metabolism is a benefit, not the defining advantage. Choice D is incorrect since distribution isn't equal—it's systemic, not a primary advantage.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is correct because hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal suppression from chronic prednisone is a type C ADR, linked to long-term use causing cumulative effects on endocrine function. Choice A is incorrect as type B is idiosyncratic, not chronic. Choice C (type E) is wrong because type E involves withdrawal effects, not ongoing suppression. Choice D (type F) is incorrect as type F is dose reduction failure, not applicable here.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is correct because genetic polymorphisms, especially in cytochrome P450 enzymes, primarily affect drug metabolism, altering how drugs are broken down and influencing dosing needs. Choice A is incorrect as absorption is less genetically variable, more tied to physiology. Choice C is wrong because distribution depends on protein binding and blood flow, not polymorphisms directly. Choice D is incorrect since excretion is influenced by metabolism outcomes, not primarily genetic variation.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is incorrect because prescribing a third drug to counteract interactions adds complexity and risk, not a standard reduction strategy, making it the exception. Choice A is correct as reducing one drug's dose minimizes interaction effects. Choice B is right because staggering administration times can avoid peak interaction. Choice D is correct since lowering both doses reduces interaction potential.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is correct because acetaminophen is safe in the elderly for pain/fever, with minimal renal/hepatic adjustment needed, per geriatric guidelines. Choice B is incorrect as amitriptyline's anticholinergic effects risk confusion and falls. Choice C is wrong because codeine's metabolism and sedation risks increase in the elderly. Choice D is incorrect since only acetaminophen is safe.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is correct because Schedule II drugs (e.g., oxycodone) require a written prescription without refills, per DEA rules. Choice B is incorrect as refills are allowed for Schedule III-V, not a requirement. Choice C is wrong because e-prescribing is permitted with security. Choice D is incorrect since only A is a mandate.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is correct because clozapine, due to agranulocytosis risk, is restricted to specialty pharmacies under REMS, unlike others. Choice A is incorrect as acetaminophen is widely available OTC. Choice C is wrong because ibuprofen is OTC and unrestricted. Choice D is incorrect since only clozapine fits.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because valproic acid depletes folic acid, necessitating supplements to reduce fetal risk. Choice B is incorrect (changing meds mid-pregnancy is risky). Choice C is wrong (vitamin K is for later gestation). Choice D is inaccurate (discontinuing not advised without specialist consult).