ATI LPN
Nursing Fundamental Physical Assessment LPN Questions
Question 1 of 9
According to her, Nursing is a helping or assistive profession to persons who are wholly or partly dependent or when those who are supposedly caring for them are no longer able to give care.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Dorothy Orem's Self-Care Deficit Theory defines nursing as a profession that assists individuals who cannot fully care for themselves due to dependency or lack of support. Developed in the 1950s, her theory posits that people naturally perform self-care activities like eating or hygiene to sustain life and well-being. When illness, injury, or absence of caregivers creates a deficit, nurses step in to help, either fully (e.g., feeding a paralyzed patient) or partially (e.g., teaching insulin administration). Unlike Henderson, who focused on universal needs, Orem emphasized self-care agency. Swanson's caring processes and Neuman's stressor management differ in focus neither frame nursing as primarily assistive in dependency. Orem's model guides nurses to assess deficits (e.g., a stroke patient's mobility) and intervene (e.g., physical therapy), aiming to restore independence or compensate permanently, a practical approach still used in rehabilitation and chronic care settings.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury who is receiving intravenous fluids. Which finding indicates that the client is experiencing fluid overload?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Crackles (A) indicate fluid overload in SCI from excess IV fluids entering alveoli. Normal BP (B), pulse (C), or output (D) don't suggest this. A is correct. Rationale: Pulmonary edema from overload requires fluid adjustment, per critical care monitoring, critical in immobile SCI patients.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse calculates the amount of an antibiotic for injection to be given to an infant. The amount of medication to be administered is 1.25mL. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dividing 1.25mL into two vastus lateralis injections (0.625mL each) suits infants, as their small muscles can't handle over 1mL dorsogluteal and ventrogluteal are riskier. Nurses split doses, ensuring safe absorption, key for pediatric medication delivery.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following statement is NOT true about Good Samaritan law?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Good Samaritan law protects emergency aid (A), applies in/out hospitals (C), doesn't cover gross negligence (D) 'stay until help' (B) isn't true, no such mandate. B's requirement misaligns, making it untrue.
Question 5 of 9
To implement nursing care interventions the nurse must be competent in three areas which are:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Competent intervention requires knowledge (theory, e.g., drug effects), function (practical application, e.g., administration), and specific skills (techniques, e.g., injections). This trio ensures safe, effective care e.g., giving antibiotics demands understanding, execution, and precision. Leadership, autonomy, and skills mix role traits with ability, missing function's practical focus leadership coordinates, not implements. Experience, advanced education, and skills enhance competence, but experience isn't a core area; it builds on knowledge, while education overlaps. Skills, leadership, and finances are disjointed finances aren't clinical, and leadership is broader. Knowledge, function, and skills form a cohesive base, enabling nurses to act proficiently across scenarios, aligning with standards for intervention delivery.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following ethical principles refers to the duty not to harm?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nonmaleficence, meaning 'do no harm,' is a core ethical principle in healthcare, obligating nurses to avoid causing injury, like double-checking medications. Beneficence promotes good, fidelity ensures loyalty, and veracity demands truthfulness. In practice, nonmaleficence guides safety protocols, balancing risks and benefits to protect patients, a foundational duty in ethical decision-making across all care settings.
Question 7 of 9
A client with an oral endotracheal tube attached to a mechanical ventilator is about to begin the weaning process. The nurse asks the health care provider whether this process should be delayed temporarily, based on administration of which medication to the client in the last hour?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lorazepam (A), a sedative, may delay weaning by depressing respiratory drive. Furosemide (B), digoxin (C), and metoclopramide (D) don't directly affect this. A is correct. Rationale: Sedation impairs spontaneous breathing, critical for weaning, per ventilator management protocols.
Question 8 of 9
Grey Turner's sign is seen in :
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Grey Turner's sign is bruising on the flanks, indicating retroperitoneal hemorrhage. Myocarditis (choice A) affects the heart, with no such sign. Pancreatitis (choice B), especially severe or hemorrhagic, causes enzyme leakage and bleeding into the retroperitoneum, manifesting as Grey Turner's sign (or Cullen's sign near the navel). Pleural effusion (choice C) involves lung fluid, unrelated to flank bruising. Monteggia fracture (choice D, misspelled) is an arm injury. B is correct, as pancreatitis is the classic cause. Nurses assess this sign, monitor vitals, and manage pain/fluids, alerting physicians to potential severity.
Question 9 of 9
Client has undergone Upper GI and Lower GI series. Which type of health assessment framework is used in this situation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Upper and Lower GI series target digestion, fitting the body system framework e.g., assessing stomach function. Functional (ADLs), head-to-toe (full), and cephalocaudal (top-down) are broader. Nurses use this e.g., GI issues for targeted care, per organ-specific assessment.