ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client reports left-sided chest pain after playing racquetball. The client is hospitalized and diagnosed with left pneumothorax. When assessing the client's left chest area, the nurse expects to identify which finding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Left pneumothorax causes absence of breath sounds (D) on the affected side due to lung collapse. Dullness (A) suggests consolidation. Fremitus (B) decreases. Rales/rhonchi (C) indicate fluid. D is correct. Rationale: Air in the pleural space silences breath sounds, a hallmark of pneumothorax, per respiratory assessment, guiding diagnosis and intervention.
Question 2 of 9
The physician ordered, Maxitrol, Od. What does Od means?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Od' means right eye (B), from Latin 'oculus dexter,' per ophthalmic terms. Left eye (A) is 'os,' both eyes (C) 'ou,' once a day (D) 'qd.' B aligns with Maxitrol's eye-specific use, making it correct.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse provides interventions for clients in a long-term care facility to help them meet their intellectual needs. Which nursing actions promote these needs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Intellectual needs in long-term care involve cognition and learning, shaping health responses. Educating a diabetic client on foot care meets this, enhancing understanding of self-management e.g., preventing ulcers tied to past experiences and education level. Showing a video on modified activities engages residents, teaching adaptive skills like chair exercises, boosting cognitive engagement. Shutting a cafeteria addresses safety, not intellect. Referring for grief targets emotional needs, not cognitive. These actions foot care, video stimulate thinking and problem-solving, key for older adults' autonomy and health behaviors, aligning with nursing's holistic aim to nurture intellectual vitality alongside physical care in chronic settings.
Question 4 of 9
A client has returned to his room following an esophagoscopy. Before offering fluids, the nurse should give priority to assessing the client's:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Post-esophagoscopy, assessing the gag reflex is critical before offering fluids, as sedation and throat manipulation may impair swallowing, risking aspiration. Consciousness, urine output, or extremity movement are secondary gag reflex directly ensures airway safety. Nurses prioritize this to confirm recovery from anesthesia, preventing complications like choking.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is planning care for several clients who have chronic conditions and live in a rural area. Which client would benefit most from tertiary prevention strategies?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tertiary prevention optimizes chronic illness outcomes, vital in rural areas with care gaps. The COPD client in pulmonary rehab benefits most rehab post-diagnosis boosts lung capacity and endurance via tailored exercises, cutting exacerbations, a nursing-led strategy. The hypertensive client needs primary or secondary focus med adherence or screening not tertiary yet. The diabetic's foot checks are tertiary but self-managed, less intensive. The arthritis client's exercise class is tertiary too, but rehab's structured, multi-faceted approach (breathing techniques, education) outshines general exercise for impact studies show it slashes hospital stays. Nursing's role here maximizes function despite isolation, ensuring this client thrives, aligning with tertiary care's depth for complex chronicity.
Question 6 of 9
A client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) requires high levels of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). Which oxygen delivery system would be most effective in providing the necessary PEEP?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A CPAP mask (C) effectively delivers PEEP in ARDS, maintaining airway pressure to improve oxygenation. Non-rebreather (A) and Venturi (B) don't provide PEEP. BVM (D) is for resuscitation, not continuous PEEP. CPAP supports alveolar recruitment, per critical care standards, vital in ARDS management.
Question 7 of 9
Bell's palsy is due to the injuries of which cranial nerve :
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bell's palsy causes unilateral facial weakness due to cranial nerve dysfunction. The trigeminal nerve (choice A, CN V) controls sensation and chewing, not facial movement. The trochlear nerve (choice B, CN IV) moves the eye, irrelevant here. The facial nerve (choice C, CN VII) innervates facial muscles; its injury (often idiopathic or viral) leads to Bell's palsy, with symptoms like drooping mouth or eye. The hypoglossal nerve (choice D, CN XII) moves the tongue. C is correct, as facial nerve damage is the established cause. Nurses assess symmetry, support eye care (due to incomplete closure), and educate on recovery, typically spontaneous within months.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following statement is TRUE about care delivery models?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Care delivery models vary by setting (B), per practice e.g., team vs. primary nursing. Not one (A), affect outcomes (C), not all (D) context-based. B truly defines models' diversity, making it correct.
Question 9 of 9
Elton, 21 year old nursing student is taking the board examination. She is sweating profusely, has decreased awareness of his environment and is purely focused on the exam questions characterized by his selective attentiveness. What anxiety level is Elton exemplifying?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Elton's moderate anxiety (B) is shown by profuse sweating, reduced environmental awareness, and selective focus on the exam. Mild (A) boosts alertness without distress. Severe (C) severely impairs function, while panic (D) causes disorganization, unlike Elton's controlled focus. Moderate anxiety narrows perception but aids task concentration, fitting his test-taking state per anxiety levels, making B correct.