ATI LPN
ATI LPN Med Surg Exam 7 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse and the orientee are receiving a client from the Post Anesthesia Care Unit (PACU) following a Pancreaticoduodenectomy (Whipple) procedure What statements by the orientee indicate that teaching has been effective regarding this type of patient? (Select All that Apply)
Correct Answer: A,C,D
Rationale: The Whipple procedure is typically for pancreatic cancer (
A), causes malabsorption issues (
C), and has a long recovery (
D). It does not involve an ileostomy (
B).
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who returned from a liver biopsy 30 minutes ago. The client presses the call light and upon arrival in the room the client is pale and complaining of feeling as if they might pass out what of the following is the nurses priority action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Inspecting the biopsy site for bleeding is the priority, as pallor and near-syncope suggest hemorrhage, a serious complication of liver biopsy. Other actions follow assessment.
Question 3 of 5
The emergency room nurse is caring for a client just diagnosed with a bowel obstruction secondary to adhesions. Which of the following orders should the nurse complete first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A nasogastric tube is essential for decompressing the stomach, relieving pressure, and preventing aspiration in bowel obstruction, making it the priority. IV fluids are important but potassium administration requires electrolyte assessment first. Drawing a metabolic panel is secondary to stabilization. Ambulation is contraindicated in acute bowel obstruction.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is performing an abdominal assessment on a patient who just returned from surgery following a colon resection. The nurse identifies that bowel sounds are not audible. Which action by the nurse would be most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Absent bowel sounds are expected post-colon resection due to postoperative ileus. Documentation is appropriate, with continued monitoring. Peer validation or immediate provider notification is unnecessary unless other concerning symptoms arise.
Extract:
Vital Signs
1500:
Temperature 37.3°C (99.1°F)
BP 154/64 mm Hg
Heart rate 105/min
Respiratory rate 26/min
Oxygen saturation 99% on room a
Medical History
Cirrhosis
Hypertension, controlled with metoprolol therapy
Type 2 diabetes mellitus. controlled with glipizide therapy
Physical examination
Client presents with decreased level of consciousness, slurred speech and impaired concentration. Client is lethargic, does not respond to questions or simple commands. Pupils round, reactive to light and accommodation. Partner states client has been sleeping during the day and remains awake at night.
skin is dry and jaundiced with petechiae present to arms and legs. S1 S2 heard on auscultation, et pulses on bilateral radial and pedal pulses. Peripheral edema -3 present in bilateral lower extremities. Crackles auscultated in bilateral lower lobes
Abdomen distended with ascites. Hypoactive bowel sounds present in all four quadrants. Partner reports no knowledge of rectal bleeding, states client has been tolerating diet with no nausea or vomiting Client placed in semi-Fowler's position at 45 feet elevated Bed in low position. Partner remains at clients bedside.
Diagnostic Results
1700
Albumin 2.9 g/dL (3.5 to 5 g/dL)
Ammonia 250 mcg/dl (10 to 80 mcg/dl) Sodium 138 mEq/L (136 to 145 mEq/L)
Potassium 4.8 mEa/L (3.5 to 5 m Eq/LI
Fasting glucose 148 mg/dl (70 to 110 mg/d) BUN 18 mg/dL (10 to 20 mg/dL)
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL (0.5 to 1 mg)
Question 5 of 5
The client is exhibiting manifestations of........... due to the client's.............
Correct Answer: A,B
Rationale: Elevated ammonia (250 mcg/dL) causes hepatic encephalopathy, manifesting as altered mental status and lethargy. DKA, dehydration, acute kidney disease, and malnutrition are ruled out by normal creatinine, fluid retention, and moderate glucose levels.