ATI LPN
ATI LPN Pharmacology Exam I Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A primary health-care provider prescribes a medication that must be administered transdermal. Which information about the route of administration does the nurse understand is related to a drug prescribed to be administered transdermal?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Inhalation targets lungs; transdermal means skin absorption, not respiratory, and this route doesn't match the prescribed method's pharmacokinetic profile. Transdermal drugs absorb through skin layers; this delivers medication systemically via dermal capillaries, bypassing first-pass metabolism, as intended by the order. Rectal administration uses suppositories; transdermal is skin-based, not mucosal, and this route doesn't align with the prescribed absorption method. Sublingual dissolves under the tongue; transdermal is cutaneous, not oral, and this differs entirely from the skin-based delivery system specified.
Question 2 of 5
Why does the nurse administer lorazepam intramuscularly (IM) to the patient rather than into the subcutaneous tissue?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Body fat levels influence subcutaneous absorption but are not the primary reason for choosing IM over SC injection in this scenario. Needle size varies by medication and patient factors, but this is not the defining reason for selecting IM over SC injection. IM injections deliver medication directly to muscle tissue with a rich vascular supply, ensuring faster absorption and onset compared to subcutaneous administration. IM injections are not inherently safer for patients at risk of bleeding; they carry similar risks and require proper assessment before administration.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is scheduled to have biofeedback therapy for migraine headaches. On arrival to the clinic, the patient appears anxious and fearful and tells the nurse that she does not want electric shocks. The most reassuring response by the nurse is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rescheduling dismisses the patient's fear; it delays therapy without addressing misconceptions, missing a chance to educate and proceed with migraine relief. Questioning prior explanation may shame the patient; it doesn't clarify biofeedback's non-invasive nature, failing to reduce anxiety about shocks. Explaining no shocks and describing biofeedback as monitoring reassures scientifically; it corrects fears, aligning with its role in stress-related migraine management. Vague reassurance lacks specificity; without addressing shocks, it's less effective, as patients need clear, factual dispelling of their expressed concern.
Question 4 of 5
An elderly patient who lives in a skilled nursing facility and who likes to walk is taking a medication that lowers blood pressure by dilating blood vessels. The best nursing action for this patient is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bed rest increases clot risk and deconditioning; vasodilators lower pressure, but mobility is beneficial unless contraindicated, making this overly restrictive. Assisting ambulation helps, but it's less proactive; it doesn't address orthostatic hypotension risks at initiation of movement, where falls are most likely. Monitoring intake/output tracks fluid status, not directly addressing vasodilation's hypotensive effects during position changes, missing the primary safety concern. Rising slowly counters orthostatic hypotension from vasodilation; it allows autoregulation to stabilize pressure, reducing fall risk in an active elderly patient.
Question 5 of 5
Vistaril 75 mg IM is ordered for anxiety. Available: 50 mg/mL. How many milliliters will the nurse administer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: 1 mL gives 50 mg; this underdoses the 75 mg order, reducing Vistaril's sedative effect, risking inadequate anxiety relief for the patient. 1.5 mL is correct; 75 mg divided by 50 mg/mL equals 1.5 mL, delivering the precise IM dose for effective anxiolytic action safely. 2 mL provides 100 mg; this overdoses Vistaril, risking excessive sedation or hypotension, exceeding the ordered therapeutic amount unnecessarily. 2.5 mL yields 125 mg; this far exceeds 75 mg, amplifying side effects like drowsiness or respiratory depression, unsafe for anxiety management.