ATI LPN
PN Pharmacology 2023 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who started taking amitriptyline 6 days ago. The client reports that the medication is not helping. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is C: "You will need to wait a couple of weeks to feel the therapeutic effect of the medication." Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, typically takes around 2-4 weeks for its full therapeutic effects to be felt. It is important for the nurse to educate the client on the delayed onset of action to manage expectations. Informing the client to wait before expecting improvement is crucial in ensuring compliance with the medication regimen.
Option A is incorrect because it is premature to switch medications without giving amitriptyline enough time to work. Option B is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take amitriptyline on an empty stomach. Option D is incorrect as increasing the dose without allowing sufficient time for the current dose to take effect may lead to unnecessary side effects.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for valproic acid. The nurse should review which of the following baseline laboratory values prior to administering the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Liver function tests. Valproic acid is known to cause hepatotoxicity, so it is crucial to assess the client's baseline liver function before administering the medication to monitor for any potential liver damage. Arterial blood gases (
A) are not directly related to valproic acid therapy. Troponin levels (
C) are used to assess for cardiac muscle damage, which is not a common side effect of valproic acid. Blood glucose levels (
D) are not directly impacted by valproic acid.
Therefore, baseline liver function tests are the most important laboratory value to review before administering valproic acid.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking epoetin alfa for 3 months. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hgb (hemoglobin). Epoetin alfa is a medication used to treat anemia by stimulating red blood cell production. Monitoring the hemoglobin levels helps determine the effectiveness of the medication in increasing red blood cells. Hemoglobin reflects the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, so an increase in hemoglobin levels indicates a positive response to the medication. Troponin (
B) is a marker for heart damage, unrelated to epoetin alfa. Thyroxine (
C) and AST (
D) are not relevant to monitoring the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the allergies of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis prior to administering celecoxib to the client. The nurse should identify that which of the following allergies is a contraindication for receiving this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sulfonamides. Celecoxib is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAI
D) that belongs to the sulfonamide class. Patients with a known allergy to sulfonamides should not receive celecoxib due to the risk of an allergic reaction. Sulfonamide allergies can manifest as severe skin reactions, such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome or toxic epidermal necrolysis, which can be life-threatening. It is crucial for the nurse to identify this allergy as a contraindication to prevent adverse reactions.
Incorrect choices:
B: Shellfish - Shellfish allergy is not directly related to sulfonamide drugs like celecoxib.
C: Fluoroquinolones - Fluoroquinolones are antibiotics and not related to celecoxib.
D: Peanuts - Peanut allergy is not associated with sulfonamide drugs like celecoxib.
Extract:
Provider Prescriptions: Tetracycline 500 mg PO twice daily; Vital Signs Initial visit: Temperature 37.1° C (98.8° F), Heart rate 82/min, Blood pressure 118/76 mm Hg, Respiratory rate 16/min, SpO2 99% on room air; Current visit: Temperature 37.5° C (99.5° F), Heart rate 84/min, Blood pressure 122/72 mm Hg, Respiratory rate 18/min, SpO2 99% on room air; History and Physical Initial visit: Client is a 20-year-old female who presents with report of worsening acne over the past few months. Severe inflammatory acne noted over face, neck, and upper back. Client has no significant medical or surgical history. Discussed skin hygiene and use of over-the-counter acne treatments. Current visit: Client reports no improvement in acne since prior visit 2 months ago. Client states they have been gently washing their skin twice daily and using acne treatments as recommended. Client states they are self-conscious and avoids certain social activities. No change in acne noted on assessment. Tetracycline prescribed. Will have the client return to the clinic in 4 weeks.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse should identify that the client is at risk for developing ________and _________
Correct Answer: B, E
Rationale: The correct answer is B and E. Gastridium difficile-associated diarrhea and Vaginal yeast infection are both conditions commonly seen in clients at risk of developing them due to factors such as recent antibiotic use, immunosuppression, or hormonal changes. Gastridium difficile-associated diarrhea is often a consequence of antibiotic therapy disrupting the normal gut flora, leading to overgrowth of C. difficile. Vaginal yeast infections can occur due to hormonal changes, antibiotic use, or compromised immune system. The other options, such as Increased cholesterol level, Elevated blood glucose level, and Gallstones, are not directly related to the given risk factors and client populations, making them incorrect choices.