ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Texas University Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is on drug treatment (chlorpromazine) and states, "I recently started having muscle spasms in my face and neck." Which of the following is the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "I will notify the physician." This response is the best course of action because muscle spasms in the face and neck could be a sign of a serious side effect of chlorpromazine called tardive dyskinesia. It is important for the nurse to promptly inform the physician to evaluate the need for adjusting the medication or exploring alternative treatment options.
Choice B is incorrect as addiction is not a typical side effect of chlorpromazine.
Choice C is incorrect as muscle spasms are not a symptom of schizophrenia itself.
Choice D is incorrect as muscle spasms should not be considered normal while taking the drug.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following medications is administered during an acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction and continued indefinitely after?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aspirin. Aspirin is administered during an acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction to prevent further clot formation by inhibiting platelet aggregation. It is continued indefinitely after the event to reduce the risk of future cardiovascular events. Morphine is used for pain relief, heparin is an anticoagulant, and streptokinase is a fibrinolytic agent used to dissolve clots during acute events, but they are not continued indefinitely post-MI.
Question 3 of 5
A client is taking a calcium channel blocker (CCB). The nurse knows to monitor for which of the following dangerous side effects of this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart Failure. Calcium channel blockers can cause negative inotropic effects leading to decreased contractility of the heart muscle, potentially resulting in heart failure. Monitoring for signs such as shortness of breath, edema, and fatigue is crucial. Drowsiness (
B), headache (
C), and hypertension (
D) are less commonly associated with calcium channel blockers and are not considered dangerous side effects.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is screening a client with a new prescription for beta blocker adrenergic propranolol [Inderal LA]. The nurse recognizes that this medication is contraindicated in the presence of which of the following conditions?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Asthma. Propranolol is contraindicated in asthma because it can cause bronchospasm due to its non-selective beta-blocking effects on both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors in the lungs. This can worsen respiratory function and potentially lead to an asthma exacerbation. Angina (choice
A) is often a reason for prescribing beta blockers. Tachycardia (choice
B) can also be managed with beta blockers. Gout (choice
D) is not a contraindication for propranolol use.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following would the nurse correctly include in client teaching about nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)?
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D
Rationale:
Correct
Answer: A, B, C, D
Rationale:
A: Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be placed under the tongue for rapid absorption. Swallowing them would reduce effectiveness.
B: Nitroglycerin is light-sensitive and can lose potency if exposed, hence storing in the original container protects it.
C: Expired nitroglycerin may be less effective or even harmful, so it should be replaced before expiration.
D: Nitroglycerin can cause a drop in blood pressure, so taking it while lying or sitting and changing positions slowly can prevent dizziness or falls.
Summary:
Choice E is incorrect because headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin but should not be a reason to discontinue the medication without consulting a healthcare provider.