ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Texas University Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who complains of a persistent, nonproductive dry cough after starting a new prescription for hypertension. Which of the following medications does the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Captopril (Capoten). Captopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly prescribed for hypertension. It is known to cause a dry cough as a side effect due to increased levels of bradykinin. The nurse should suspect captopril as the cause of the client's persistent dry cough. Nifedipine, verapamil, and propranolol are not associated with causing a dry cough as a side effect. Nifedipine and verapamil are calcium channel blockers, while propranolol is a beta-blocker.
Therefore, the nurse should focus on captopril as the likely culprit for the client's symptom.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client who suffers from panic disorder. Which SNRI drug can induce remission and prevent relapse for this disorder?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Venlafaxine (Effexor XR). Venlafaxine is an SNRI that has been shown to be effective in treating panic disorder by inducing remission and preventing relapse. It works by increasing the levels of serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps regulate mood and reduce anxiety symptoms. Escitalopram (
B) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) and may not be as effective as venlafaxine for panic disorder. Alprazolam (
C) is a benzodiazepine used for acute relief of panic attacks but is not recommended for long-term use due to the risk of dependence. Buspirone (
D) is a non-benzodiazepine anxiolytic that is not typically used as a first-line treatment for panic disorder.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer protamine sulfate for which of the following medication overdoses?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Heparin. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin overdose because it binds to heparin to form a stable salt, neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. Hydralazine (
A), diphenhydramine (
B), and warfarin (
C) do not require protamine sulfate for overdose treatment as they have different antidotes or management strategies. Summarily, A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not involve heparin.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is teaching the client prescribed verapamil to avoid which of the following foods?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Grapefruit. Verapamil interacts with grapefruit, leading to increased drug levels in the body. This can result in potential side effects or toxicity. Apples, bananas, and oranges do not have significant interactions with verapamil.
Therefore, avoiding grapefruit is crucial to prevent adverse effects.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is teaching a client who has been diagnosed with hyperlipidemia about medication therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Rationale: Lovastatin (Mevacor) is a statin medication used to lower cholesterol levels in hyperlipidemia. It inhibits an enzyme involved in cholesterol synthesis, thus reducing LDL levels. This makes it an appropriate choice for managing hyperlipidemia. Pioglitazone (Actos) is used for diabetes, Spironolactone (Aldactone) for hypertension and heart failure, and Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) for urinary tract infections.
Therefore, only option A directly addresses hyperlipidemia.