ATI LPN
ATI LPN Med Surg Exam 5 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A 45-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with excessive thirst, frequent urination, and signs of dehydration. His laboratory results show low urine osmolality and high serum sodium levels. Based on this case scenario, which of the following management strategies would be appropriate for this patient? (Select All that Apply.)
Correct Answer: B,C
Rationale: Desmopressin reduces urine output in conditions like diabetes insipidus, and hypotonic saline corrects dehydration and high serum sodium. Diuretics, fluid restriction, and hypertonic saline would worsen the condition.
Question 2 of 5
A patient presents with a thyroid storm. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate to initially manage this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Propranolol controls symptoms like tachycardia and hypertension in thyroid storm and inhibits T4 to T3 conversion, making it the initial intervention.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is providing care for an older adult client who has hyperglycemia, polydipsia, and polyuria. Which of the following manifestations supports the clinical presentation of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS)? (Select All that Apply.)
Correct Answer: B,C,D,F
Rationale: Fever, older age, high serum glucose, and insidious onset are characteristic of HHS, unlike acetone breath and low bicarbonate, which suggest DKA.
Question 4 of 5
A 65-year-old patient with newly diagnosed multiple myeloma presents with bone pain and fatigue. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Administering analgesics and educating about pain management addresses the debilitating bone pain, improving quality of life and enabling participation in other therapies.
Question 5 of 5
A 21-year-old patient with a known history of sickle cell anemia presents to the emergency department with severe pain in the lower back and joints, fatigue, and fever. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Vaso-occlusive crisis is a common complication of sickle cell anemia, where sickled red blood cells block blood flow, causing severe pain, fever, and fatigue, matching the patient's symptoms.