ATI LPN
ATI LPN Pharmacology 2023 retake 1 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has schizophrenia and a new prescription for haloperidol. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid taking which of the following medications?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diphenhydramine. Haloperidol and diphenhydramine both have sedative effects and can cause additive central nervous system depression when taken together. This can lead to increased drowsiness, confusion, and impaired coordination. Docusate sodium (
B), ibuprofen (
C), and glucosamine (
D) do not have significant interactions with haloperidol. It is important for the client to avoid diphenhydramine to prevent potential adverse effects.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is administering phenytoin to a client. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bleeding gums. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication known to cause gingival hyperplasia, leading to bleeding gums. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial to prevent further complications. Tinnitus (
A) is associated with aspirin overdose. Jaundice (
C) is a potential adverse effect of liver-damaging medications. Deep vein thrombosis (
D) is not directly related to phenytoin administration.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has COPD and has been taking long-term high doses of prednisone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Measure your blood glucose levels periodically. Clients taking long-term high doses of prednisone are at risk for developing steroid-induced diabetes due to the drug's effect on blood glucose levels. Monitoring blood glucose levels will help detect any abnormalities early, allowing for timely intervention.
A: Limiting potassium-containing foods is not directly related to prednisone use in COPD.
B: Withholding prednisone for 48 hours prior to receiving contrast dye can lead to adrenal insufficiency in clients on long-term prednisone therapy.
D: Taking prednisone on an empty stomach is not a specific instruction related to managing COPD or prednisone therapy.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving filgrastim. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bone pain. Filgrastim is a medication that stimulates the production of white blood cells. Bone pain is a common adverse effect because it indicates the bone marrow is producing more cells. Monitoring for bone pain is crucial to assess the effectiveness of the medication. Hypertension (
A) and fluid retention (
B) are not typically associated with filgrastim. Hypokalemia (
D) is not a common adverse effect of filgrastim.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is collecting data from a client who has gout and is taking allopurinol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse identify as the priority to report to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rash. A rash could indicate a severe allergic reaction or Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a potentially life-threatening skin disorder associated with allopurinol. This adverse effect requires immediate medical attention to prevent serious complications.
B: Diarrhea, C: Nausea, and D: Metallic taste in mouth are common side effects of allopurinol but not typically considered urgent or life-threatening. Reporting them to the provider is important, but they do not require immediate attention like a rash.