ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Texas University Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client with type 1 diabetes is taking propranolol [Inderal], acting confused, and reports weakness and feeling shaky. What must the nurse check first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Capillary blood glucose level. In this scenario, the client is displaying symptoms of hypoglycemia, which can be induced by propranolol in diabetic patients. Checking the blood glucose level is crucial as hypoglycemia can be life-threatening. Renal function tests (
A) are not directly related to the symptoms presented. Blood pressure (
C) and serum electrolyte levels (
D) may be affected by propranolol but are not the priority in this situation.
Question 2 of 5
A client is brought to the emergency department in acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications does the nurse anticipate will be ordered to prevent seizures and delirium tremens?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diazepam [Valium]. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used to treat alcohol withdrawal symptoms by preventing seizures and delirium tremens. It acts by enhancing the inhibitory effects of GABA in the brain, reducing excitability and preventing withdrawal symptoms. Zolpidem (
A) is a sedative-hypnotic but not used for alcohol withdrawal. Morphine (
B) is an opioid analgesic and can worsen alcohol withdrawal. Fluoxetine (
D) is an antidepressant and not indicated for acute alcohol withdrawal.
Question 3 of 5
A c+2:34lient has a medical prescription for nifedipine [Adalat XL]. Which of the following should the nurse teach the client about this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Correct
Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Nifedipine [Adalat XL] is an extended-release medication designed to release the drug slowly over time.
2. Cutting, crushing, or chewing the medication can disrupt the extended-release mechanism, leading to a sudden release of the drug and potential adverse effects.
3. By swallowing the medication whole, the client ensures the drug is released gradually, maintaining its therapeutic effect.
Summary:
B: Taking blood pressure in the morning is not directly related to the administration of nifedipine.
C: Caution with OTC cold medications is a general precaution and not specific to nifedipine.
D: Taking the medication before bedtime is not specified for nifedipine and may not align with its dosing schedule.
Question 4 of 5
A client has been diagnosed with a life-threatening recurrent ventricular fibrillation that has not responded to other medications or defibrillation. Which of the following does the nurse anticipate will be prescribed next?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Amiodarone. This medication is used to treat life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias like ventricular fibrillation that have not responded to other treatments. Amiodarone works by prolonging the action potential and refractory period of cardiac tissue, helping to stabilize the heart's rhythm. Quinidine (
A) is not typically used for ventricular arrhythmias. Digoxin (
B) is used for heart failure and atrial fibrillation, not ventricular fibrillation. Atropine (
C) is used for bradycardia, not ventricular fibrillation. Amiodarone is the drug of choice for this situation.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following will the nurse include in teaching for a client taking ferrous sulfate [Feosol]?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because ferrous sulfate can stain teeth and cause GI upset. Diluting the liquid with juice or water and using a straw can help minimize these side effects.
Choice B is incorrect because dairy products can decrease iron absorption.
Choice C is incorrect because green or brown stools are normal with iron therapy.
Choice D is incorrect because citrus juices can enhance iron absorption.