ATI LPN
ATI LPN Med Surg Exam 5 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A 45-year-old patient has been prescribed a topical antibiotic for an ear infection. What is the correct way to administer this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tilting the head to the side and pulling the earlobe up and back is the recommended method for adults to straighten the ear canal, allowing the drops to flow directly into the ear canal and reach the site of infection effectively. This method ensures that the medication is properly administered and can work effectively to treat the infection.
Question 2 of 5
A 65-year-old patient is admitted to the ICU with myxedema coma. Which of the following interventions is the priority for this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: IV levothyroxine is the priority to correct severe hypothyroidism in myxedema coma, addressing critical symptoms like hypothermia and altered mental status.
Question 3 of 5
A 45-year-old male patient presents with complaints of severe headaches, visual disturbances, and joint pain. Upon further investigation, he is diagnosed with hyperpituitarism. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of his symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pituitary adenoma is the most common cause of hyperpituitarism, leading to hormone overproduction causing headaches, visual issues, and joint pain.
Question 4 of 5
A 45-year-old female patient presents with symptoms of tingling in the fingers, muscle cramps, and fatigue. Her laboratory results show low serum calcium, low parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels, and elevated serum phosphate levels. Based on these lab results, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Low serum calcium, low PTH, and high phosphate levels are characteristic of hypoparathyroidism, causing symptoms like tingling and muscle cramps.
Question 5 of 5
A 21-year-old patient with a known history of sickle cell anemia presents to the emergency department with severe pain in the lower back and joints, fatigue, and fever. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Vaso-occlusive crisis is a common complication of sickle cell anemia, where sickled red blood cells block blood flow, causing severe pain, fever, and fatigue, matching the patient's symptoms.