ATI LPN Pharm Quiz Final | Nurselytic

Correct Answer: Hypoglycemia triggers glucagon, not insulin. Hyperglycemia prompts insulin release to lower blood sugar. Glucagon opposes insulin. Ketoacids indicate low glucose, not insulin trigger.

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperglycemia. When blood sugar levels are high, the pancreas responds by releasing insulin to facilitate the uptake of glucose by cells, thereby lowering blood sugar levels. This is a crucial mechanism to maintain glucose homeostasis in the body. Hypoglycemia (
A) triggers the release of glucagon to raise blood sugar levels, not insulin. Glucagon (
C) is released in response to low blood sugar levels and opposes the action of insulin. Ketoacids (
D) indicate a state of low glucose, not a trigger for insulin secretion.
Therefore, the correct trigger for the pancreas to secrete insulin is hyperglycemia.

Correct Answer: Cephalosporins share a similar structure with penicillin, risking cross-allergy. Sulfonamides, macrolides, and aminoglycosides lack this relation.

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cephalosporins. Cephalosporins have a beta-lactam ring structure similar to penicillin, leading to potential cross-allergy. Sulfonamides, macrolides, and aminoglycosides have different chemical structures, reducing the likelihood of cross-allergy.
Therefore, individuals allergic to penicillin may have a cross-allergy to cephalosporins due to structural similarity, making it the correct choice.

Correct Answer: 1000 mL ÷ 5 hr = 200 mL/hr. 200 mL/hr ÷ 60 min = 3.33 mL/min × 15 drops/mL = 49.95 drops/min, rounded to 50. Thus, 200 mL/hr and 50 drops/min.

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 200 mL/hr and 50 drops/min.
To calculate the mL per hour, you divide the total mL by the total hours (1000 mL ÷ 5 hr = 200 mL/hr).
To find the mL per minute, you divide the mL per hour by 60 minutes (200 mL/hr ÷ 60 min = 3.33 mL/min). Next, to determine the drops per minute, you multiply the mL per minute by the drop factor (3.33 mL/min × 15 drops/mL = 49.95 drops/min, rounded to 50 drops/min).
Therefore, the correct administration rate is 200 mL/hr and 50 drops/min.


Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the correct calculation based on the given parameters.
Choice A and B have incorrect mL per hour values, and
Choice C has an incorrect drops per minute value.

Correct Answer: Coffee, tea, and chocolate contain caffeine, a stimulant that counteracts anxiolytics/sedatives and may worsen anxiety.

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Caffeine, found in coffee, tea, and chocolate, is a stimulant that can counteract the effects of anxiolytics and sedatives, potentially worsening anxiety symptoms. Consuming these items can lead to increased heart rate, restlessness, and jitteriness, which are opposite effects of anxiolytics and sedatives.
Therefore, it is advisable for a student nurse studying drugs for anxiety and insomnia to avoid these stimulant-containing products to prevent any interference with the effectiveness of anxiolytics and sedatives.

Correct Answer: BUN, PT/PTT, and CBC aren't specific to INH. Liver enzymes are monitored due to INH's hepatotoxicity risk.

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse should monitor liver enzymes (LFTs) in a patient on isoniazid (INH) due to the risk of hepatotoxicity associated with this medication. 1. Isoniazid is known to cause liver damage in some patients. 2. Monitoring liver enzymes can help detect any liver dysfunction early. 3. LFTs include tests such as ALT, AST, and bilirubin, which can indicate liver damage. 4. Regular monitoring of LFTs is essential to ensure the safe use of INH. Incorrect choices: A. BUN is not specific to INH. B. PT and PTT are not directly related to INH use. D. CBC is not specifically required for monitoring INH therapy.