Questions 47

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ATI LPN Test Bank

LPN Nursing 1 Fundamental Exam Questions

Extract:

The culture from the wound infection shows Bacterial Staphylococcal Aureus


Question 1 of 5

Which of the following healthcare provider orders would the nurse anticipate?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Administering an antibiotic to which Staphylococcus aureus is sensitive is the most appropriate treatment.

Extract:

A client age 52 who had gall bladder surgery and has osteoarthritis, a client age 18 who had plastic surgery on nose and is overweight, a client age 45 with a fractured wrist and in pain, a client age 78 with Rheumatoid arthritis who had foot surgery and a Foley catheter inserted


Question 2 of 5

Which of the following clients are at greatest risk for developing an infection?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Advanced age, rheumatoid arthritis, foot surgery, and a Foley catheter increase infection risk significantly.

Extract:

A client recently diagnosed with Ankylosing Spondylitis


Question 3 of 5

Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect in a client with Ankylosing Spondylitis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Ankylosing spondylitis is characterized by progressive stiffness and fusion of the spine, especially in the lower back.

Extract:

A 57-year old female client with left upper arm open wound infection (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus [MRSA]) and cellulitis


Question 4 of 5

Indicate whether the nursing actions are Indicated, Contraindicated, or Non-essential for the client's care.

Correct Answer: A, C, E

Rationale: A (Indicated): Contact precautions prevent MRSA spread. C (Indicated): Elevation reduces swelling. E (Indicated): IV access is needed for antibiotics. B (Contraindicated): Cold compress may worsen tissue damage. D (Non-essential): Frequent cultures are unnecessary. F (Non-essential): Heparin is not indicated unless clotting risk exists.

Extract:


Question 5 of 5

The nurse is preparing to administer 400 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride IV over 8 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 60 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtts/min?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Using the formula: (400 mL x 60 gtt/mL) / (8 hr x 60 min) = 50 gtt/min.

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