ATI LPN Pharm Quiz Final | Nurselytic

Questions 28

ATI LPN

ATI LPN Test Bank

ATI LPN Pharm Quiz Final Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

Which class of drugs is successful in treating an ulcer caused by H. pylori?

Correct Answer: Antacids relieve symptoms. H2 blockers and PPIs reduce acid but don't kill H. pylori. Antibiotics eradicate the bacteria, treating the ulcer's cause.

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Antibiotics. Antacids (choice
A) only provide symptomatic relief by neutralizing stomach acid. H2-receptor blockers (choice
B) and proton-pump inhibitors (choice
D) are used to reduce stomach acid secretion but do not directly target H. pylori bacteria.
Choice C, antibiotics, are successful in treating ulcers caused by H. pylori because they specifically target and eradicate the bacteria, addressing the root cause of the ulcer.
Therefore, antibiotics are the most effective class of drugs for treating H. pylori-induced ulcers.

Question 2 of 5

What is the priority action for a nurse caring for a client with a urinary tract infection before administering prescribed antibiotics?

Correct Answer: Blood pressure is routine, not priority. Urine culture identifies the bacteria and antibiotic sensitivity before treatment. PTT and platelet counts are unrelated to UTI antibiotics.

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity. This is the priority action because it helps identify the specific bacteria causing the UTI and determines the most effective antibiotic for treatment. This step is crucial for appropriate antibiotic therapy and to prevent antibiotic resistance. A: Obtaining a blood pressure is a routine assessment and not directly related to UTI treatment. C and D: Obtaining a PTT and platelet count are not necessary for assessing or treating a UTI; these tests are unrelated to UTI management.
Therefore, the priority action for a nurse caring for a client with a UTI is to obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following triggers the pancreas to secrete insulin?

Correct Answer: Hypoglycemia triggers glucagon, not insulin. Hyperglycemia prompts insulin release to lower blood sugar. Glucagon opposes insulin. Ketoacids indicate low glucose, not insulin trigger.

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperglycemia. When blood sugar levels are high, the pancreas responds by releasing insulin to facilitate the uptake of glucose by cells, thereby lowering blood sugar levels. This is a crucial mechanism to maintain glucose homeostasis in the body. Hypoglycemia (
A) triggers the release of glucagon to raise blood sugar levels, not insulin. Glucagon (
C) is released in response to low blood sugar levels and opposes the action of insulin. Ketoacids (
D) indicate a state of low glucose, not a trigger for insulin secretion.
Therefore, the correct trigger for the pancreas to secrete insulin is hyperglycemia.

Question 4 of 5

A patient is allergic to penicillin. Which class of antibiotics might they also have a cross-allergy to?

Correct Answer: Cephalosporins share a similar structure with penicillin, risking cross-allergy. Sulfonamides, macrolides, and aminoglycosides lack this relation.

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cephalosporins. Cephalosporins have a beta-lactam ring structure similar to penicillin, leading to potential cross-allergy. Sulfonamides, macrolides, and aminoglycosides have different chemical structures, reducing the likelihood of cross-allergy.
Therefore, individuals allergic to penicillin may have a cross-allergy to cephalosporins due to structural similarity, making it the correct choice.

Question 5 of 5

The healthcare provider has ordered 1000 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride to be administered intravenously over 5 hours. The drop factor on the tubing is 15 drops/mL. How many milliliters per hour and how many drops per minute will you administer?

Correct Answer: 1000 mL ÷ 5 hr = 200 mL/hr. 200 mL/hr ÷ 60 min = 3.33 mL/min × 15 drops/mL = 49.95 drops/min, rounded to 50. Thus, 200 mL/hr and 50 drops/min.

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 200 mL/hr and 50 drops/min.
To calculate the mL per hour, you divide the total mL by the total hours (1000 mL ÷ 5 hr = 200 mL/hr).
To find the mL per minute, you divide the mL per hour by 60 minutes (200 mL/hr ÷ 60 min = 3.33 mL/min). Next, to determine the drops per minute, you multiply the mL per minute by the drop factor (3.33 mL/min × 15 drops/mL = 49.95 drops/min, rounded to 50 drops/min).
Therefore, the correct administration rate is 200 mL/hr and 50 drops/min.


Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the correct calculation based on the given parameters.
Choice A and B have incorrect mL per hour values, and
Choice C has an incorrect drops per minute value.

Access More Questions!

ATI LPN Basic


$89/ 30 days

 

ATI LPN Premium


$150/ 90 days

 

Similar Questions