ATI LPN
PN Pharmacology 2023 Questions
Extract:
Provider Prescriptions: Tetracycline 500 mg PO twice daily; Vital Signs Initial visit: Temperature 37.1° C (98.8° F), Heart rate 82/min, Blood pressure 118/76 mm Hg, Respiratory rate 16/min, SpO2 99% on room air; Current visit: Temperature 37.5° C (99.5° F), Heart rate 84/min, Blood pressure 122/72 mm Hg, Respiratory rate 18/min, SpO2 99% on room air; History and Physical Initial visit: Client is a 20-year-old female who presents with report of worsening acne over the past few months. Severe inflammatory acne noted over face, neck, and upper back. Client has no significant medical or surgical history. Discussed skin hygiene and use of over-the-counter acne treatments. Current visit: Client reports no improvement in acne since prior visit 2 months ago. Client states they have been gently washing their skin twice daily and using acne treatments as recommended. Client states they are self-conscious and avoids certain social activities. No change in acne noted on assessment. Tetracycline prescribed. Will have the client return to the clinic in 4 weeks.
Question 1 of 5
The nurse should identify that the client is at risk for developing ________and _________
Correct Answer: B, E
Rationale:
Correct
Answer: B, E
Rationale:
1.
Choice B: Gastridium difficile-associated diarrhea is a risk for clients on antibiotics, disrupting gut flora balance.
2.
Choice E: Vaginal yeast infection risk increases with antibiotic use, disrupting vaginal flora.
Summary:
- A, C, D: These choices are not directly related to antibiotic use or disruption of flora balance.
- B, E: Antibiotics can lead to imbalances in gut and vaginal flora, increasing the risk for these conditions.
Extract:
Vital Signs Day 1: Temperature 37.2° C (99° F), Blood pressure 124/56 mm Hg, Heart rate 66/min, Respiratory rate 16/min, Oxygen saturation 95% on room air; Day 2: Temperature 37.2° C (99° F), Heart rate 112/min, Respiratory rate 28/min, Blood pressure 148/86 mm Hg, Oxygen saturation 90% on room air; Medication Administration Record: Albuterol 2 inhalations every 4 to 6 hr PRN wheezing, Bisacodyl 10 mg suppository daily PRN constipation, Prochlorperazine 10 mg PO 3 to 4 times per day PRN nausea, Morphine 4 mg IV bolus every 4 hr PRN severe pain, Acetaminophen 325 to 650 mg every 4 to 6 hr PRN pain or temperature greater than 38.4° C (101.1° F); Nurses' Notes Day 1: Bilateral breath sounds are clear and present throughout. Client reports pain as 2 on a scale of 0 to 10. Abdomen soft, nondistended, bowel sounds hypoactive. Client has a history of asthma. Day 2: Respirations rapid and shallow. Bilateral breath sounds with scattered wheezing. Client reports pain as 8 on a scale of 0 to 10. Client reports no nausea or constipation. Abdomen soft, nondistended, bowel sounds audible.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse should contribute to the plan of care by administering _______ and ______ to the client.
Correct Answer: B, C
Rationale: The correct answer is B and C. Albuterol is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions like asthma, while morphine is an opioid analgesic for pain management. The nurse should administer these medications as part of the client's plan of care to address their specific health needs. Prochlorperazine (
A) is an antiemetic for nausea and vomiting, not typically within a nurse's scope. Bisacodyl (
D) is a laxative, Acetaminophen (E) is a pain reliever, and the remaining choices are not provided.
Extract:
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is collecting data from a client who takes furosemide daily for heart failure. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse review before administering the medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (
A) is not relevant for assessing furosemide therapy. Thyroxine (
B) is a thyroid hormone and not directly affected by furosemide. Serum aspartate aminotransferase (
D) is a liver enzyme and not specifically impacted by furosemide administration.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory findings of client who has been taking gemfibrozil for 3 months. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced triglycerides. Gemfibrozil is a lipid-lowering medication that works by decreasing triglyceride levels. The nurse should expect a reduction in triglycerides as a therapeutic effect of the medication. Option A (Increased serum creatinine) is incorrect as gemfibrozil typically does not affect creatinine levels. Option B (Reduced serum calcium) is incorrect as gemfibrozil does not impact calcium levels. Option C (Increased Hgb) is incorrect as gemfibrozil does not directly affect hemoglobin levels.
Therefore, the nurse should anticipate a decrease in triglyceride levels as the expected finding in a client taking gemfibrozil.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is collecting data from a client who is experiencing oxycodone toxicity. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sedation. Oxycodone is an opioid that depresses the central nervous system, leading to sedation as a common manifestation of toxicity. Tachypnea (
A) is more commonly associated with opioid withdrawal rather than toxicity. Dilated pupils (
C) are more indicative of stimulant toxicity, not opioids. Tachycardia (
D) is unlikely with oxycodone toxicity due to its depressant effects on the cardiovascular system. Other choices are not relevant to oxycodone toxicity.