ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Texas University Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) 750 mcg PO daily. Available: See label below. How many pills should the nurse administer? Do not round your answer. Enter numeric answer only.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The label indicates that each pill contains 250 mcg of digoxin.
To calculate how many pills the nurse should administer for a total of 750 mcg daily, divide the total dose by the dose per pill: 750 mcg ÷ 250 mcg/pill = 3 pills.
Therefore, the correct answer is A.
Choice B and other options are incorrect because they do not align with the calculated dosage based on the label information.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following is the federal statute that regulates drugs and medications in Schedules I through V?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Controlled Substances Act (CS
A). This federal statute regulates drugs and medications in Schedules I through V. The CSA categorizes substances based on their potential for abuse and medical use. The CDC (
A) focuses on public health, HIPAA (
B) protects patient privacy, and the FDA (
D) oversees drug approval and safety, but they do not specifically regulate drugs based on controlled substance schedules.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who complains of a persistent, nonproductive dry cough after starting a new prescription for hypertension. Which of the following medications does the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Captopril (Capoten). Captopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly prescribed for hypertension. It is known to cause a dry cough as a side effect due to increased levels of bradykinin. The nurse should suspect captopril as the cause of the client's persistent dry cough. Nifedipine, verapamil, and propranolol are not associated with causing a dry cough as a side effect. Nifedipine and verapamil are calcium channel blockers, while propranolol is a beta-blocker.
Therefore, the nurse should focus on captopril as the likely culprit for the client's symptom.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client who suffers from panic disorder. Which SNRI drug can induce remission and prevent relapse for this disorder?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Venlafaxine (Effexor XR). Venlafaxine is an SNRI that has been shown to be effective in treating panic disorder by inducing remission and preventing relapse. It works by increasing the levels of serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps regulate mood and reduce anxiety symptoms. Escitalopram (
B) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) and may not be as effective as venlafaxine for panic disorder. Alprazolam (
C) is a benzodiazepine used for acute relief of panic attacks but is not recommended for long-term use due to the risk of dependence. Buspirone (
D) is a non-benzodiazepine anxiolytic that is not typically used as a first-line treatment for panic disorder.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer protamine sulfate for which of the following medication overdoses?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Heparin. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin overdose because it binds to heparin to form a stable salt, neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. Hydralazine (
A), diphenhydramine (
B), and warfarin (
C) do not require protamine sulfate for overdose treatment as they have different antidotes or management strategies. Summarily, A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not involve heparin.