Questions 60

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PN Pharmacology 2023 Questions

Extract:

Vital Signs Day 1: Temperature 37.5° C (99.5° F), Heart rate 98/min, Respiratory rate 20/min, Blood pressure 180/86 mm Hg, Oxygen saturation 95% on room air, Weight 90 kg (198 lb); 2 months later: Temperature 37.5° C (99.5° F), Heart rate 48/min, Respiratory rate 20/min, Blood pressure 140/76 mm Hg, Oxygen saturation 97% on room air, Weight 91 kg (200 lb)


Question 1 of 5

The nurse is evaluating the client's response to the medication. The client's ___________ and ____________ indicate the client's condition is improving.

Correct Answer: B, E

Rationale: The correct answers are B (Heart rate) and E (Blood pressure) because they are vital signs that directly reflect the body's response to medication. An improving condition would typically show a decrease in heart rate and blood pressure due to the medication's effectiveness in stabilizing the body's functions. HDL level, potassium level, and weight are not direct indicators of the client's immediate response to medication and may change for various reasons unrelated to medication effectiveness.

Extract:


Question 2 of 5

A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who is to receive a transfusion of packed RBCs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obtain 0.9% sodium chloride solution for IV infusion. This is the correct action because it is important to prime the IV tubing with a normal saline solution before starting the transfusion to prevent hemolysis of the packed RBCs. Normal saline is isotonic and compatible with most blood products, reducing the risk of adverse reactions.


Choice A is incorrect because packed RBCs should be transfused within 4 hours, not 6 hours.
Choice C is incorrect because filterless IV tubing should not be used for blood transfusions as it can lead to the administration of clots or debris.
Choice D is incorrect because the nurse should remain at the client's bedside for the first 15 minutes of the transfusion, not 5 minutes, to monitor for any immediate adverse reactions.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is collecting data from a client who takes furosemide daily for heart failure. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse review before administering the medication?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss through increased urination. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias. Reviewing and addressing any abnormal potassium levels before administering furosemide is essential for the client's safety.


Choices A, B, and D are unrelated to furosemide therapy for heart failure. Option A (Erythrocyte sedimentation rate) measures inflammation and is not directly affected by furosemide. Option B (Thyroxine) is a thyroid hormone level and is not impacted by furosemide use. Option D (Serum aspartate aminotransferase) is a liver enzyme, not typically affected by furosemide.
Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect for monitoring before administering furosemide in this scenario.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who has prescriptions for spironolactone and lisinopril. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to elevated potassium levels. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can also contribute to hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent serious complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Hypoglycemia (
B) and hyperglycemia (
D) are not typically associated with these medications. Hypokalemia (
C) is the opposite of the expected effect.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a prescription for alendronate. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "I will take this medication right before I go to bed." Alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach in the morning with a full glass of water, then the patient should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking it to prevent esophageal irritation and optimize absorption. Taking it before bed increases the risk of esophageal issues.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because drinking orange juice, remaining seated for 30 minutes, and taking the medication just once a month do not align with the correct administration instructions for alendronate.

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