ATI LPN
ATI LPN Pharm Quiz Final Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Four patients are due to receive their morning insulin and breakfast will be served in 15 minutes. Which patient should the nurse administer insulin to first?
Correct Answer: 90 mg/dL (NPH) and 70 mg/dL (aspart) are normal/low, less urgent. 120 mg/dL (NPH) is mildly high. 170 mg/dL with rapid-acting lispro needs priority due to significant elevation.
Rationale: The correct answer is D: The patient with a pre-meal glucose level of 170 mg/dL, scheduled to receive 5 units of lispro (Humalog) insulin. This choice is correct because a glucose level of 170 mg/dL is significantly elevated, indicating a need for immediate insulin administration to prevent further hyperglycemia. Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin, which should be administered promptly before breakfast to control the high blood sugar effectively.
Choices A, B, and C have glucose levels within normal or slightly elevated ranges, making them less urgent for immediate insulin administration.
Choice D is the most critical due to the high glucose level and the type of insulin being rapid-acting, requiring prompt action to manage the patient's blood sugar levels effectively.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse has an order to administer U-500 Humulin R insulin 10 units. How many units should the nurse draw up when administering this insulin?
Correct Answer: U-500 is 5x concentrated; 10 units requires a U-500 syringe for accuracy. Other options misalign syringe type or dose.
Rationale: The correct answer is G. When administering U-500 Humulin R insulin, which is 5x concentrated, the nurse should use a U-500 insulin syringe for accuracy. Drawing up 10 units with a U-500 syringe ensures the correct dose is administered.
Choice A and D suggest using different syringe types or incorrect doses, leading to potential dosing errors.
Choice C mentions using a 30-unit syringe which is not appropriate for U-500 insulin.
Choice B suggests using a 500-unit syringe which may lead to inaccuracies in dosing.
Therefore, the correct choice is G as it aligns with the concentration of U-500 insulin and ensures accurate dosing.
Question 3 of 5
Why are antianxiety medications used cautiously in older adults?
Correct Answer: Poor circulation affects distribution but isn't primary. Liver metabolism slows, not hastens. Acid production impacts some drugs, not anxiolytics. Reduced elimination increases buildup, risking side effects.
Rationale: The correct answer is D: There is reduced elimination, leading to a buildup in the circulation. In older adults, the kidneys tend to function less efficiently, resulting in reduced elimination of medications from the body. This decreased clearance can lead to a buildup of antianxiety medications in the bloodstream, potentially causing adverse effects or toxicity. This is why antianxiety medications should be used cautiously in older adults to prevent these risks.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because poor circulation, faster liver metabolism, and decreased acid production are not the primary reasons why antianxiety medications are used cautiously in older adults. These factors may influence drug absorption or metabolism, but the key concern with antianxiety medications in older adults is the reduced elimination leading to potential drug accumulation and its associated risks.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated for peptic ulcer disease. Which medication should the patient be taught to avoid?
Correct Answer: NSAIDs can worsen ulcers by irritating the stomach lining. Antacids, H2 blockers, and PPIs aid ulcer healing.
Rationale: The correct answer is A: NSAIDs. NSAIDs, such as ibuprofen and aspirin, can worsen peptic ulcers by irritating the stomach lining and inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis, which is needed for stomach lining protection. Antacids, H2 blockers, and PPIs, on the other hand, help in ulcer healing by reducing stomach acid production or neutralizing acid.
Therefore, teaching the patient to avoid NSAIDs is crucial to prevent exacerbation of peptic ulcers.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient who is experiencing anaphylaxis. The family asks the nurse why the patient is having difficulty breathing. The nurse responds based on what knowledge?
Correct Answer: Bronchoconstriction from allergens causes breathing difficulty in anaphylaxis. Hypotension, tachycardia, and seizures are secondary or unrelated.
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bronchoconstriction in response to the allergen. During anaphylaxis, the body releases histamine causing bronchoconstriction, leading to difficulty breathing. This is a direct response to the allergen and can lead to respiratory distress.
Choice B, compensation for a rapid fall in blood pressure, is incorrect as hypotension is a secondary effect of anaphylaxis.
Choice C, reflex tachycardia, is also incorrect as tachycardia is a compensatory response to hypotension, not the cause of difficulty breathing.
Choice D, seizures are likely to occur, is incorrect as seizures are not a common manifestation of anaphylaxis.
Therefore, the correct answer is A as it directly relates to the pathophysiology of anaphylaxis.