ATI LPN
ATI LPN Pharm Quiz Final Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for buspirone (Buspar) to treat anxiety. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: No empty stomach requirement. Effects take weeks, not 24 hours. Low dependency risk is key. It's not for as-needed use.
Rationale:
Correct
Answer: C: This medication has a low risk for dependency.
Rationale:
1. Buspirone (Buspar) is a non-benzodiazepine anxiolytic with a lower risk of dependency compared to benzodiazepines.
2. Educating the client about the low dependency risk is crucial to alleviate fears and promote adherence.
3. Option A is incorrect as buspirone can be taken with or without food.
4. Option B is incorrect as the full therapeutic effects of buspirone may take several weeks to manifest, not within 24 hours.
5. Option D is incorrect as buspirone is typically taken regularly, not on an as-needed basis for anxiety.
Summary:
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Choice A is incorrect because buspirone can be taken with or without food.
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Choice B is incorrect because optimal effects of buspirone may take weeks, not 24 hours.
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Choice D is incorrect because buspirone is typically taken regularly, not on an
Question 2 of 5
What would the nurse teach a client to avoid when taking barbiturates?
Correct Answer: Nicotine and caffeine don't critically interact. Alcohol, a CNS depressant, dangerously enhances barbiturate sedation. Bananas are unrelated.
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alcohol. Barbiturates and alcohol are both central nervous system depressants, and when taken together, they can dangerously enhance sedation and respiratory depression. This can lead to overdose and even death. Nicotine (choice
A) and caffeine (choice
D) do not have critical interactions with barbiturates, so there is no specific teaching to avoid them. Bananas (choice
C) are unrelated to barbiturate use and do not pose any risk. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client on the dangers of combining barbiturates with alcohol to prevent adverse effects and ensure the client's safety.
Question 3 of 5
A client taking an MAOI should be instructed to avoid which item?
Correct Answer: Water, salt, and fat don't interact with MAOIs. Tyramine and caffeine can cause hypertensive crises with MAOIs.
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Foods that contain tyramine and caffeine. MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of tyramine and caffeine, leading to an accumulation in the body. Tyramine can cause a dangerous increase in blood pressure known as a hypertensive crisis. Caffeine can also contribute to this effect. Large amounts of water (
A), a high-salt diet (
B), and a high-fat diet (
C) do not interact with MAOIs in a way that poses a significant risk.
Therefore, instructing the client to avoid foods containing tyramine and caffeine is crucial to prevent potential adverse reactions.
Question 4 of 5
Class of drugs derived from barbituric acid that act as CNS depressants and are used for their sedative and anti- seizure effect are known as _
Correct Answer: Antidepressants treat mood disorders. Anxiolytics reduce anxiety but aren't barbituric-derived. Barbiturates fit the description. Benzodiazepines aren't barbituric-based.
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Barbiturates. Barbiturates are drugs derived from barbituric acid, acting as CNS depressants for sedative and anti-seizure effects. Antidepressants (
A) are used for mood disorders, not CNS depression. Anxiolytics (
B) are for anxiety and not all are barbituric-derived. Benzodiazepines (
D) are a different class of CNS depressants, not derived from barbituric acid.
Therefore, choice C is the most appropriate based on the specific description provided in the question.
Question 5 of 5
Four patients are due to receive their morning insulin and breakfast will be served in 15 minutes. Which patient should the nurse administer insulin to first?
Correct Answer: 90 mg/dL (NPH) and 70 mg/dL (aspart) are normal/low, less urgent. 120 mg/dL (NPH) is mildly high. 170 mg/dL with rapid-acting lispro needs priority due to significant elevation.
Rationale: The correct answer is D: The patient with a pre-meal glucose level of 170 mg/dL, scheduled to receive 5 units of lispro (Humalog) insulin. This choice is correct because a glucose level of 170 mg/dL is significantly elevated, indicating a need for immediate insulin administration to prevent further hyperglycemia. Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin, which should be administered promptly before breakfast to control the high blood sugar effectively.
Choices A, B, and C have glucose levels within normal or slightly elevated ranges, making them less urgent for immediate insulin administration.
Choice D is the most critical due to the high glucose level and the type of insulin being rapid-acting, requiring prompt action to manage the patient's blood sugar levels effectively.