ATI LPN
ATI LPN Pharmacology safety Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer enteric-coated aspirin to an older adult client who had a cerebrovascular accident and has difficulty swallowing medications. The client asks the nurse if she will crush the medication to make it easier to swallow. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Correct
Answer: C - That would release all the medication at once, rather than over time.
Rationale: Enteric-coated aspirin is designed to bypass the stomach and dissolve in the small intestine to prevent irritation to the stomach lining. Crushing the medication would disrupt the enteric coating, causing the medication to be released in the stomach instead of the small intestine. This can lead to irritation of the stomach lining and potentially increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. It is important for the medication to be released gradually over time to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
Summary:
A: Incorrect - Stomach acid inactivation is not the primary concern with crushing enteric-coated aspirin.
B: Incorrect - Stomach ache or indigestion is a possibility, but the main issue is the incorrect release of the medication.
D: Incorrect - Mixing crushed enteric-coated aspirin with ice cream would still disrupt the enteric coating and lead to improper release.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assisting in preparing an in-service program about preventing medication errors when transcribing a prescription. The nurse is using a dosage example of two tenths of a milligram. Which of the following transcription examples should the nurse use?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 0.2 mg. When transcribing a dosage of two tenths of a milligram, it should be written as 0.2 mg to avoid confusion. Using 2.0 mg (Option
A) implies 2 milligrams, which is ten times the intended dose. Options C, D, and E do not accurately represent two tenths of a milligram due to the presence of additional zeros or decimals.
Therefore, the most appropriate and accurate transcription example is B: 0.2 mg.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer a vaginal cream to a client. The nurse should instruct the client to lie in which of the following positions while in bed?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sims position. This position is optimal for vaginal cream administration as it allows easy access to the vaginal area. The client lies on their side with the upper knee flexed, providing good exposure for the nurse to administer the cream effectively.
Choice A (Orthopneic) is incorrect as it refers to a position where the client sits upright to facilitate breathing, not relevant for vaginal cream administration.
Choice B (Prone) is incorrect as it involves lying face down, making it difficult to access the vaginal area.
Choice D (Dorsal recumbent) is incorrect as it involves lying on the back with knees flexed, not ideal for vaginal cream administration as it limits access.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client following an episode of status asthmaticus. The client has a prescription for two inhalations from an albuterol metered-dose inhaler. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "I will hold my breath at least 10 seconds after inhaling the medication." Holding the breath for at least 10 seconds after inhaling allows the medication to reach deep into the lungs for better absorption and effectiveness. This statement demonstrates an understanding of optimal inhaler technique, ensuring maximum benefit from the medication.
Choice A is incorrect because the hand used to hold the inhaler does not impact the effectiveness of the medication.
Choice C is incorrect as waiting 10 minutes between inhalations is not recommended and could delay necessary treatment.
Choice D is incorrect as tilting the head forward does not affect the delivery of the medication.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer 400 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride IV over 8 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 60 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
To calculate the IV infusion rate in gtt/min, we first convert 8 hours to minutes (8 hr x 60 min/hr = 480 min).
Then, we use the formula: (Volume to be infused in mL / Time in min) x Drop factor (gtt/mL). Plugging in the values: (400 mL / 480 min) x 60 gtt/mL = 50 gtt/min.
Therefore, the correct answer is A.
Choice B (25 gtt/min) is incorrect as it would be half the correct rate.
Choice C (100 gtt/min) is incorrect as it would be double the correct rate.
Choice D (75 gtt/min) is incorrect as it is closer to the correct rate but still incorrect.