ATI LPN
PN Pharmacology 2023 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer acetaminophen 650 mg rectally. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Have the client lie on his left side for 5 min after insertion. This position allows for optimal absorption of the medication. Placing the client on the left side helps the suppository reach the rectal mucosa, enhancing drug absorption. This position also prevents the suppository from being expelled prematurely.
Choice A is incorrect because inserting the suppository too far (5 cm) can cause discomfort or injury.
Choice B is unnecessary as lubrication is typically not needed for rectal suppositories.
Choice D is incorrect as warming the suppository is not recommended and may alter the medication's effectiveness.
Extract:
Vital Signs Day 1: Temperature 37.2° C (99° F), Blood pressure 124/56 mm Hg, Heart rate 66/min, Respiratory rate 16/min, Oxygen saturation 95% on room air; Day 2: Temperature 37.2° C (99° F), Heart rate 112/min, Respiratory rate 28/min, Blood pressure 148/86 mm Hg, Oxygen saturation 90% on room air; Medication Administration Record: Albuterol 2 inhalations every 4 to 6 hr PRN wheezing, Bisacodyl 10 mg suppository daily PRN constipation, Prochlorperazine 10 mg PO 3 to 4 times per day PRN nausea, Morphine 4 mg IV bolus every 4 hr PRN severe pain, Acetaminophen 325 to 650 mg every 4 to 6 hr PRN pain or temperature greater than 38.4° C (101.1° F); Nurses' Notes Day 1: Bilateral breath sounds are clear and present throughout. Client reports pain as 2 on a scale of 0 to 10. Abdomen soft, nondistended, bowel sounds hypoactive. Client has a history of asthma. Day 2: Respirations rapid and shallow. Bilateral breath sounds with scattered wheezing. Client reports pain as 8 on a scale of 0 to 10. Client reports no nausea or constipation. Abdomen soft, nondistended, bowel sounds audible.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse should contribute to the plan of care by administering _______ and ______ to the client.
Correct Answer: B, C
Rationale: The correct answer is B (Albuterol) and C (Morphine). Albuterol is a bronchodilator used for treating respiratory conditions like asthma by opening up the airways. Morphine is an opioid analgesic for managing severe pain. The nurse's role includes administering these medications based on the client's needs and the healthcare provider's prescriptions. Prochlorperazine (
A) is an antiemetic for nausea and vomiting, not relevant here. Bisacodyl (
D) is a laxative for constipation, not related to the client's current care needs. Acetaminophen (E) is a pain reliever, but not as potent as morphine for severe pain.
Extract:
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking epoetin alfa for 3 months. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hgb (hemoglobin). Epoetin alfa is a medication used to treat anemia by stimulating red blood cell production. Monitoring the hemoglobin levels helps determine the effectiveness of the medication in increasing red blood cells. Hemoglobin reflects the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, so an increase in hemoglobin levels indicates a positive response to the medication. Troponin (
B) is a marker for heart damage, unrelated to epoetin alfa. Thyroxine (
C) and AST (
D) are not relevant to monitoring the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.
Extract:
Provider Prescriptions: Tetracycline 500 mg PO twice daily; Vital Signs Initial visit: Temperature 37.1° C (98.8° F), Heart rate 82/min, Blood pressure 118/76 mm Hg, Respiratory rate 16/min, SpO2 99% on room air; Current visit: Temperature 37.5° C (99.5° F), Heart rate 84/min, Blood pressure 122/72 mm Hg, Respiratory rate 18/min, SpO2 99% on room air; History and Physical Initial visit: Client is a 20-year-old female who presents with report of worsening acne over the past few months. Severe inflammatory acne noted over face, neck, and upper back. Client has no significant medical or surgical history. Discussed skin hygiene and use of over-the-counter acne treatments. Current visit: Client reports no improvement in acne since prior visit 2 months ago. Client states they have been gently washing their skin twice daily and using acne treatments as recommended. Client states they are self-conscious and avoids certain social activities. No change in acne noted on assessment. Tetracycline prescribed. Will have the client return to the clinic in 4 weeks.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse should identify that the client is at risk for developing ________and _________
Correct Answer: B, E
Rationale: The correct answer is B and E. Gastridium difficile-associated diarrhea and Vaginal yeast infection are both conditions commonly seen in clients at risk of developing them due to factors such as recent antibiotic use, immunosuppression, or hormonal changes. Gastridium difficile-associated diarrhea is often a consequence of antibiotic therapy disrupting the normal gut flora, leading to overgrowth of C. difficile. Vaginal yeast infections can occur due to hormonal changes, antibiotic use, or compromised immune system. The other options, such as Increased cholesterol level, Elevated blood glucose level, and Gallstones, are not directly related to the given risk factors and client populations, making them incorrect choices.
Extract:
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who is to receive a transfusion of packed RBCs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obtain 0.9% sodium chloride solution for IV infusion. This is the correct action because it is important to prime the IV tubing with a normal saline solution before starting the transfusion to prevent hemolysis of the packed RBCs. Normal saline is isotonic and compatible with most blood products, reducing the risk of adverse reactions.
Choice A is incorrect because packed RBCs should be transfused within 4 hours, not 6 hours.
Choice C is incorrect because filterless IV tubing should not be used for blood transfusions as it can lead to the administration of clots or debris.
Choice D is incorrect because the nurse should remain at the client's bedside for the first 15 minutes of the transfusion, not 5 minutes, to monitor for any immediate adverse reactions.