ATI LPN
ATI LPN Pharmacology 2023 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer 17,000 units heparin subcutaneously. Available is heparin 20,000 units/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest hundredth. Use a leading zero if applicable. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
To calculate the mL of heparin needed, use the formula: Amount needed (17,000 units) ÷ Concentration of heparin (20,000 units/mL) = mL to administer. 17,000 ÷ 20,000 = 0.85 mL (Round to the nearest hundredth).
Therefore, the correct answer is A (0.85 mL). Other choices are incorrect as they do not result from the correct calculation.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer a daily dose of warfarin to a client. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse check prior to administration?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: INR. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is a crucial laboratory value to monitor before administering warfarin, an anticoagulant. INR helps assess the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy by measuring the clotting time of blood. This ensures that the dose is within the therapeutic range to prevent clotting or bleeding complications. Checking white blood cells (WB
C), platelets, or activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) is not directly related to warfarin administration. WBC count indicates infection or inflammation, platelets assess clotting ability, and APTT evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. However, these values do not specifically guide warfarin dosing like the INR does.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a prescription for sildenafil to treat erectile dysfunction. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Eating fatty foods can delay the absorption of sildenafil, so avoiding them can help the medication work effectively.
Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil does not protect against STDs.
Choice C is incorrect as sildenafil is usually taken as needed, not twice daily.
Choice D is incorrect as constipation is not a common side effect of sildenafil.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse in an influenza clinic is collecting data from four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as having a contraindication for receiving the live attenuated form of the influenza vaccine?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B - A client at 27 weeks of gestation. Pregnant individuals are contraindicated to receive live attenuated influenza vaccine due to theoretical risk to the fetus. This is because live vaccines are not recommended during pregnancy.
Choice A is incorrect as a recent tattoo does not contraindicate the vaccine.
Choice C is incorrect as travel plans do not affect the decision to administer the vaccine.
Choice D is incorrect as rhinitis is not a contraindication.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an oral solution of codeine to suppress a nonproductive cough. Which of the following is the nurse's data collection priority following administration of this medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory rate. Codeine is a central nervous system depressant that can cause respiratory depression as a side effect.
Therefore, monitoring the client's respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory distress or suppression. This should be the nurse's priority to ensure the client's safety.
A: Heart rate may be affected by codeine, but respiratory rate is a more direct indicator of respiratory depression.
C: Blood pressure is not typically affected by codeine in the context of suppressing a cough.
D: Level of consciousness is important, but respiratory rate takes precedence as it directly reflects potential respiratory depression.