ATI LPN
ATI LPN Pharmacology Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is educating a client who has been prescribed a 10-day course of antibiotics for a bacterial infection. The nurse emphasizes the importance of completing the full course and informs the client about the signs and symptoms of a superinfection. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the nurse's teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Correct
Answer: B
Rationale: Option B is correct because it demonstrates the client understands the importance of completing the full course of antibiotics to ensure the infection is completely eradicated. Reporting unusual symptoms like a white coating on the tongue is essential as it could indicate a superinfection.
Option A is incorrect as severe diarrhea should not be ignored, it could be a sign of a superinfection. Option C is incorrect as sharing antibiotics can lead to antibiotic resistance. Option D is incorrect as stopping antibiotics prematurely can result in the infection not being fully treated, leading to potential relapse.
Question 2 of 5
Calculate the dosage using the label below. Round to the nearest tenth place. Order: Celestone, Soluspan (betamethasone) 12 mg IM q24 hr. for 2 doses. Available
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 2 mL IM.
To calculate the dosage, we need to multiply the dose ordered (12 mg) by the number of doses (2) to get a total of 24 mg. Next, we need to check the concentration of the medication. If the concentration is 6 mg/mL, we divide the total dose (24 mg) by the concentration (6 mg/mL) to get 4 mL.
Therefore, the correct dosage is 4 mL. Option A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not follow the calculation based on the ordered dose and concentration provided on the label. Option E, F, and G are not applicable.
Question 3 of 5
Where do enteric coated tablets typically disintegrate in the body?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Duodenum. Enteric-coated tablets are designed to withstand the acidic environment of the stomach and only disintegrate in the alkaline environment of the duodenum. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine, where the pH is higher due to the presence of bicarbonate from the pancreas. This delayed release allows for protection of the drug from stomach acid and enzymes.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because enteric-coated tablets are specifically formulated to avoid disintegration in the esophagus, stomach, or colon.
Question 4 of 5
A patient is experiencing status epileptics. The nurse anticipates immediate administration of which drug?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diazepam. In status epilepticus, rapid termination of seizures is crucial to prevent brain damage. Diazepam is the drug of choice due to its rapid onset of action and effectiveness in stopping seizures quickly. It acts by enhancing the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA. Phenobarbital (
B) has a slower onset of action and is not ideal for immediate seizure control. Valproic acid (
C) and Phenytoin (
D) are also effective but have slower onset compared to diazepam. Other choices are irrelevant. In summary, Diazepam is the immediate drug of choice in status epilepticus for its rapid action in terminating seizures.
Question 5 of 5
Order: lidocaine 2 g in 250 mL of D5W at 30 mL/h What is the flow rate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 30 mL/hr.
To calculate the flow rate, first convert 2 g of lidocaine to mL using the drug concentration.
Then divide by the time in hours. The other choices are incorrect because they do not correctly calculate the flow rate based on the given information.
Choice A is the initial volume, not the flow rate.
Choices C, D, and E are incorrect calculations based on incorrect conversions or misinterpretations of the question.