ATI LPN
ATI LPN Pharmacology safety Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily for heart failure. The client's current vital signs are: BP 144/96, heart rate 54/min, respirations 18/min, and temperature 37° C (98.6° F). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Withhold the digoxin dose for decreased heart rate. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that can cause bradycardia as a side effect, especially if taken at inappropriate doses. The client's heart rate is already low at 54/min, so administering digoxin could further decrease the heart rate and lead to serious complications like heart block or cardiac arrest. Withholding the digoxin dose in this situation is appropriate to ensure the client's safety.
Choice A is incorrect because elevated BP is not a contraindication for digoxin administration.
Choice C is incorrect because administering the full dose of digoxin when the heart rate is already low can be harmful.
Choice D is incorrect because administering a lower dose of digoxin may still lead to further bradycardia.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer diazepam 3 mg IM. The amount available is diazepam for injection 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
To calculate the amount of diazepam to administer, use the formula: Desired dose / Stock dose = Volume to administer. In this case, 3 mg / 5 mg/mL = 0.6 mL.
Therefore, the correct answer is B (0.6 mL). This calculation ensures the nurse administers the correct dosage of diazepam.
Choice A (0.5 mL) is incorrect because it would result in an underdose.
Choices C, D, E, F, and G are incorrect as they are not the nearest rounded value to the correct answer.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is calculating a client's fluid intake over the past 8 hr. The client had one 8-oz cup of coffee 3 oz of juice, and 12 oz of soda. The client's water pitcher had 800 mL and 200 mL remain. The client also had IV fluids infusing at 40 mL/hr via an IV pump. How many mL should the nurse document as the client's total intake for the shift?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 1,610 mL.
To calculate the client's total intake, you need to add up all sources of fluid intake.
- Coffee (8 oz = 240 mL)
- Juice (3 oz = 90 mL)
- Soda (12 oz = 360 mL)
- Water from pitcher (800 mL - 200 mL = 600 mL)
- IV fluids (40 mL/hr x 8 hr = 320 mL)
Add all these values together: 240 + 90 + 360 + 600 + 320 = 1,610 mL. This is the total fluid intake for the shift.
Other choices are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the sum of all fluid sources. B, C, and D are lower or higher than the correct calculation, making them inaccurate.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assisting with teaching a class about medication interactions. The nurse should include that iron preparations should be administered with which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Orange juice. Iron preparations should be administered with orange juice because the vitamin C in orange juice helps enhance the absorption of iron in the body. Vitamin C helps convert non-heme iron (from plant sources) into a form that is easier for the body to absorb.
Therefore, taking iron with orange juice can optimize the body's ability to absorb and utilize the iron effectively.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect:
B: Cheese does not have any specific interaction with iron absorption.
C: Milk can inhibit the absorption of iron due to its calcium content, which can interfere with iron absorption.
D: Antacids containing magnesium can also inhibit the absorption of iron because magnesium can bind to iron and reduce its absorption in the digestive system.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. The nurse should use the results of which of the following diagnostic tests to monitor the effect of this therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT). PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, which warfarin affects. Monitoring PT helps assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in preventing blood clots. WBC count (
A), aPTT (
B), and platelet count (
D) do not directly monitor the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. WBC count is for infection, aPTT is for heparin therapy, and platelet count is for assessing clotting ability.