ATI LPN
ATI LPN Pharmacology 2023 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for ceftriaxone. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maculopapular rash. Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin antibiotic known to cause hypersensitivity reactions, including skin rashes like maculopapular rash. This type of rash is common with antibiotic use and may indicate an allergic reaction. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial to assess the client's response to the medication.
A: Concentrated urine is not a typical adverse effect of ceftriaxone.
C: Constipation is not a common adverse effect associated with ceftriaxone.
D: Pitting edema is not a recognized adverse effect of ceftriaxone.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer regular and NPH insulin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Withdraw the NPH insulin last. This is because regular insulin is a clear solution and should be withdrawn first to prevent contamination with the cloudy NPH insulin. Mixing the medications in a 3-mL syringe (
B) is not recommended as it may alter the effectiveness of the insulin. Administering the medications in two separate syringes (
C) is important to avoid mixing them prior to administration. Injecting air into the regular vial first (
D) is unnecessary and not a standard practice.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer 17,000 units heparin subcutaneously. Available is heparin 20,000 units/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest hundredth. Use a leading zero if applicable. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
To calculate the mL of heparin needed, use the formula: Amount needed (17,000 units) ÷ Concentration of heparin (20,000 units/mL) = mL to administer. 17,000 ÷ 20,000 = 0.85 mL (Round to the nearest hundredth).
Therefore, the correct answer is A (0.85 mL). Other choices are incorrect as they do not result from the correct calculation.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer a daily dose of warfarin to a client. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse check prior to administration?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: INR. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is a crucial laboratory value to monitor before administering warfarin, an anticoagulant. INR helps assess the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy by measuring the clotting time of blood. This ensures that the dose is within the therapeutic range to prevent clotting or bleeding complications. Checking white blood cells (WB
C), platelets, or activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) is not directly related to warfarin administration. WBC count indicates infection or inflammation, platelets assess clotting ability, and APTT evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. However, these values do not specifically guide warfarin dosing like the INR does.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a prescription for sildenafil to treat erectile dysfunction. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Eating fatty foods can delay the absorption of sildenafil, so avoiding them can help the medication work effectively.
Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil does not protect against STDs.
Choice C is incorrect as sildenafil is usually taken as needed, not twice daily.
Choice D is incorrect as constipation is not a common side effect of sildenafil.