ATI LPN Pharm Quiz Final | Nurselytic

Questions 28

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ATI LPN Pharm Quiz Final Questions

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Question 1 of 5

A client taking an MAOI should be instructed to avoid which item?

Correct Answer: Water, salt, and fat don't interact with MAOIs. Tyramine and caffeine can cause hypertensive crises with MAOIs.

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Foods that contain tyramine and caffeine. MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of tyramine and caffeine, leading to an accumulation in the body. Tyramine can cause a dangerous increase in blood pressure known as a hypertensive crisis. Caffeine can also contribute to this effect. Large amounts of water (
A), a high-salt diet (
B), and a high-fat diet (
C) do not interact with MAOIs in a way that poses a significant risk.
Therefore, instructing the client to avoid foods containing tyramine and caffeine is crucial to prevent potential adverse reactions.

Question 2 of 5

Class of drugs derived from barbituric acid that act as CNS depressants and are used for their sedative and anti- seizure effect are known as _

Correct Answer: Antidepressants treat mood disorders. Anxiolytics reduce anxiety but aren't barbituric-derived. Barbiturates fit the description. Benzodiazepines aren't barbituric-based.

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Barbiturates. Barbiturates are drugs derived from barbituric acid, acting as CNS depressants for sedative and anti-seizure effects. Antidepressants (
A) are used for mood disorders, not CNS depression. Anxiolytics (
B) are for anxiety and not all are barbituric-derived. Benzodiazepines (
D) are a different class of CNS depressants, not derived from barbituric acid.
Therefore, choice C is the most appropriate based on the specific description provided in the question.

Question 3 of 5

Four patients are due to receive their morning insulin and breakfast will be served in 15 minutes. Which patient should the nurse administer insulin to first?

Correct Answer: 90 mg/dL (NPH) and 70 mg/dL (aspart) are normal/low, less urgent. 120 mg/dL (NPH) is mildly high. 170 mg/dL with rapid-acting lispro needs priority due to significant elevation.

Rationale: The correct answer is D: The patient with a pre-meal glucose level of 170 mg/dL, scheduled to receive 5 units of lispro (Humalog) insulin. This choice is correct because a glucose level of 170 mg/dL is significantly elevated, indicating a need for immediate insulin administration to prevent further hyperglycemia. Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin, which should be administered promptly before breakfast to control the high blood sugar effectively.

Choices A, B, and C have glucose levels within normal or slightly elevated ranges, making them less urgent for immediate insulin administration.
Choice D is the most critical due to the high glucose level and the type of insulin being rapid-acting, requiring prompt action to manage the patient's blood sugar levels effectively.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse has an order to administer U-500 Humulin R insulin 10 units. How many units should the nurse draw up when administering this insulin?

Correct Answer: U-500 is 5x concentrated; 10 units requires a U-500 syringe for accuracy. Other options misalign syringe type or dose.

Rationale: The correct answer is G. When administering U-500 Humulin R insulin, which is 5x concentrated, the nurse should use a U-500 insulin syringe for accuracy. Drawing up 10 units with a U-500 syringe ensures the correct dose is administered.
Choice A and D suggest using different syringe types or incorrect doses, leading to potential dosing errors.
Choice C mentions using a 30-unit syringe which is not appropriate for U-500 insulin.
Choice B suggests using a 500-unit syringe which may lead to inaccuracies in dosing.
Therefore, the correct choice is G as it aligns with the concentration of U-500 insulin and ensures accurate dosing.

Question 5 of 5

Why are antianxiety medications used cautiously in older adults?

Correct Answer: Poor circulation affects distribution but isn't primary. Liver metabolism slows, not hastens. Acid production impacts some drugs, not anxiolytics. Reduced elimination increases buildup, risking side effects.

Rationale: The correct answer is D: There is reduced elimination, leading to a buildup in the circulation. In older adults, the kidneys tend to function less efficiently, resulting in reduced elimination of medications from the body. This decreased clearance can lead to a buildup of antianxiety medications in the bloodstream, potentially causing adverse effects or toxicity. This is why antianxiety medications should be used cautiously in older adults to prevent these risks.



Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because poor circulation, faster liver metabolism, and decreased acid production are not the primary reasons why antianxiety medications are used cautiously in older adults. These factors may influence drug absorption or metabolism, but the key concern with antianxiety medications in older adults is the reduced elimination leading to potential drug accumulation and its associated risks.

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