ATI LPN
ATI LPN Mental Health 2023 III Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client is becoming increasingly agitated, anxious, and tense. The nurse notes a clenched jaw and a change in the pitch of the client's voice. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Verbal de-escalation is the first-line intervention for managing escalating behavior. It uses calm, non-confrontational communication to reduce agitation without resorting to physical or chemical restraints, which should be last resorts only if safety is imminently threatened and de-escalation fails.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer duloxetine 120 mg PO once daily to a client who has generalized anxiety disorder. Available is duloxetine 30 mg capsules. How many capsules should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: 4
Rationale: Dose (120 mg) / Capsule strength (30 mg) = 4 capsules, a whole number as required.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is to receive electroconvulsive therapy. The nurse should notify the provider for which of the following findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cardiac arrhythmias pose a risk during ECT due to cardiovascular effects of stimulation, requiring stabilization before proceeding, unlike the other conditions.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer sertraline 50 mg PO once daily to a client who has depressive disorder. Available is sertraline oral solution 20 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: 2.5
Rationale: Dose (50 mg) / Concentration (20 mg/mL) = 2.5 mL, rounded to the nearest tenth as instructed.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a newly admitted client who has obsessive-compulsive disorder. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Explaining response prevention, a key OCD therapy, establishes a treatment foundation after initial assessment, prior to medication or secondary interventions like relaxation.