NCLEX-RN
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The physician prescribes phenytoin (Dilantin) for a client with seizure disorders. Phenytoin can only be mixed with which of the following solutions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Phenytoin is compatible only with normal saline and should be mixed only with normal saline for administration.
Question 2 of 5
The client is receiving a continuous infusion of propofol (Diprivan) for sedation. Which assessment is most important?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Propofol can cause respiratory depression, so monitoring respiratory rate is critical to detect apnea or hypoventilation. Blood pressure, pulse, and temperature are monitored but are less immediate concerns.
Question 3 of 5
A client with a history of lymphoma is admitted with complaints of night sweats. The nurse should expect the client to have:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Night sweats are a B symptom of lymphoma, along with fever and weight loss, indicating systemic disease.
Question 4 of 5
One of the most reliable assessment tools for adequacy of fluid resuscitation in burned children is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Blood pressure can remain normotensive in a state of hypovolemia. Capillary refill, alterations in sensorium, and urine output are the most reliable indicators for assessing hydration. Skin turgor is not a reliable indicator for assessing hydration in a burn client. Fluid intake does not indicate adequacy of fluid resuscitation in a burn client.
Question 5 of 5
Which statement made by the student nurse indicates the need for further teaching regarding the administration of heparin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Heparin is administered subcutaneously without aspiration, as aspirating can cause tissue damage and increase bleeding risk. The other statements are correct: heparin is injected 1–2 inches from the umbilicus, massage is avoided to prevent hematoma, and PTT is monitored to assess therapeutic effect.