Questions 150

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX-RN Test Bank

NCLEX RN Question Bank Free Questions

Question 1 of 5

The mother of a neonate delivered at 36 weeks' gestation asks why the neonate is being treated for sepsis when no infection is present. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Treating a 36-week neonate for sepsis is often precautionary due to their increased risk of infection, even without confirmed infection, to prevent complications.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct Answer: A, D

Rationale: aPTT monitors heparin therapy, and D-dimer indicates clot presence in DVT.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse has administered a dose of diazepam to the client. Which most important action should the nurse take before leaving the client's room?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Diazepam is a benzodiazepine and has sedative/hypnotic effects with anticonvulsant and skeletal muscle relaxant properties. The nurse should institute safety measures before leaving the client's room to ensure that the client does not injure self. The most frequent side effects of this medication are dizziness, drowsiness, and lethargy. For this reason, the nurse raises a side rail on the bed and instructs the client not to get out of bed without assistance. Note that agency policy regarding the use of side rails is always followed. Although the remaining options may be helpful measures that provide a comfortable, restful environment, instructing the client to ask for assistance when getting out of bed provides for the client's safety needs.

Question 4 of 5

The best way to determine whether or not a medication is compatible with a particular intravenous fluid is to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A compatibility chart is the most reliable and standardized method to determine if a medication is compatible with an IV fluid, ensuring safety and preventing adverse reactions.

Question 5 of 5

Your client has superior vena cava syndrome. The client's wife asks you what this is. How should you respond to the client's wife? You should explain that superior vena cava syndrome is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Superior vena cava syndrome is caused by compression of the superior vena cava, a major vein, leading to symptoms like swelling and shortness of breath.

Similar Questions

Access More Questions!

NCLEX RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

 

NCLEX RN Premium


$150/ 90 days