Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions - Nurselytic

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When blood pressure measured in the arm is significantly elevated, especially in adolescents and young adults, it is crucial to compare it with thigh pressure to assess for coarctation of the aorta. The popliteal artery, not the femoral artery, should be auscultated for the thigh pressure reading as the femoral artery is closer to the placement of the blood pressure cuff. Generally, thigh pressure is higher than arm pressure; however, if there is coarctation of the artery, arm pressures can be higher than thigh pressures. The preferred position for measuring thigh pressure is the prone position, not supine, with the knee slightly bent to facilitate accurate readings.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 30. When a patient is on complete bed rest, it is essential to elevate the head of the bed at a 30-degree angle or more before meals. This position helps prevent choking and aspiration of food during eating by promoting proper swallowing and digestion.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide the optimal elevation needed to support safe and effective feeding for a patient on complete bed rest.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Starting prophylactic AZT treatment is the most critical intervention in this scenario. Azidothymidine (AZT) is an antiretroviral medication used to prevent and treat HIV/AIDS by reducing the replication of the virus. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV involves taking medication to suppress the virus and prevent infection after exposure. PEP should be initiated within 72 hours of potential HIV exposure to be effective. Seeking treatment quickly is crucial to enhance its effectiveness. Seeing a social worker (
Choice
A) may be helpful for emotional support but is not the immediate priority. Pentamidine treatment (
Choice
C) is not indicated for post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV. Seeking counseling (
Choice
D) is important for the nursing student's emotional well-being but does not address the urgent need for post-exposure prophylaxis to prevent HIV transmission.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Pulse pressure is the numerical difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure readings. In this case, the systolic blood pressure is 170 mm Hg, and the diastolic blood pressure is 100 mm Hg.
Therefore, the pulse pressure is calculated as 170 - 100 = 70 mm Hg. Pulse pressure reflects the stroke volume, the amount of blood ejected from the heart with each beat.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure readings provided.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Aging causes a decrease in vital capacity and decreased inspiratory reserve volume. As a result, the examiner may observe a shallower inspiratory phase and an increased respiratory rate in older adults. Contrary to common belief, the increased rigidity of arterial walls actually makes the pulse easier to palpate in aging adults. Pulse pressure is widened, not decreased, due to changes in systolic and diastolic blood pressures. Furthermore, changes in the body's temperature regulatory mechanism make older individuals less likely to develop a fever but more susceptible to hypothermia.