Questions 150

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX-RN Test Bank

NCLEX RN Questions with Detailed Explanations Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which anatomical site and method should the nurse use to administer an injection of iron to a client?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique for administering parenteral iron is deep in the gluteal muscle using Z-track technique to minimize the possibility of staining or irritating the tissues. Administering iron subcutaneously or with a short needle and using the deltoid muscle is contraindicated because of iron's irritating nature.

Question 2 of 5

A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine (Clozaril). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following serious side effects?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a life-threatening reduction in white blood cells, requiring regular monitoring of white cell counts.

Question 3 of 5

Assessment of a client taking lithium reveals dry mouth, nausea, thirst, and mild hand tremor. Based on an analysis of these findings, which of the following should the nurse do next?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: These symptoms are common side effects of lithium, especially early in treatment, and typically subside as the body adjusts. Continuing the medication and reassuring the client is appropriate unless symptoms worsen.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is caring for a 25-year-old client who will undergo bilateral orchiectomy for testicular cancer. Considering the nature of the illness, the nurse should make it a priority to explore which potential psychological concern with this client?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Although the client will need factual information about the postoperative period and recuperation, the nurse should place priority on addressing loss of reproductive ability as a psychological concern. The radical effects of this surgery in the reproductive area make it likely that the client may have some difficulty in adjustment to this consequence of surgery.

Question 5 of 5

A client with a history of depression is prescribed venlafaxine (Effexor). The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following side effects immediately?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Venlafaxine can cause increased blood pressure, requiring immediate reporting to prevent cardiovascular complications.

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