NCLEX-RN
Maternity NCLEX RN Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
When developing the plan of care for a multigravid client with class III heart disease, which of the following areas should the nurse expect to assess frequently?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Class III heart disease indicates significant cardiac limitation, making tachycardia a critical sign of cardiac stress during labor. Frequent assessment ensures early detection of decompensation. Dehydration, nausea, or anemia are less immediate concerns.
Question 2 of 5
A primigravida admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum is placed on nothing-by-mouth(NPO) status and is receiving intravenous(IV) fluid replacement therapy. In planning this client's care, the nurse should collaborate with the health care provider(HCP) to carry out which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Gradual reintroduction of oral fluids is appropriate once vomiting subsides.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is discussing the contraceptive injection with a client. Which of the following side effects should the nurse mention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The contraceptive injection may cause irregular bleeding and potential weight gain. It does not guarantee regular periods, cause permanent infertility, or significantly increase breast cancer risk.
Question 4 of 5
Assessment reveals that the fetus of a multigravid client is at +1 station and 8 cm dilated. Based on these data, the nurse should first:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: At 8 cm dilation and +1 station, the client is in the transition phase but not fully dilated (10 cm). Pushing before full dilation can lead to cervical edema or lacerations. Encouraging the client to breathe through the urge to push helps prevent premature pushing while supporting labor progression. Increasing the epidural rate or assisting with pushing is inappropriate at this stage, and while family support is valuable, it is not the priority.
Question 5 of 5
A client asks about the benefits of breastfeeding for contraception. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most accurate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The lactational amenorrhea method (LAM) is effective for up to 6 months postpartum if the client is exclusively breastfeeding, amenorrheic, and the infant is under 6 months. It is not reliable for a year, does not permanently prevent ovulation, and is less effective with formula supplementation.