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Question 1 of 5

The oncology nurse is caring for a 24-year-old male client with testicular cancer. Cisplatin IV has been ordered. Which lab value would the nurse notify the health care provider about before administering this medication?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Cisplatin is nephrotoxic; a creatinine clearance of 23 mL/min indicates impaired renal function, requiring provider notification before administration.

Question 2 of 5

A client with advanced Alzheimer's disease has been prescribed haloperidol (Haldol). What clinical manifestation suggests that the client is experiencing side effects from this medication?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Haloperidol, an antipsychotic, can cause extrapyramidal side effects like tremors, which are common and indicate a neurological side effect.

Question 3 of 5

A client who just delivered is concerned about her neonate's Apgar scores of 7 at 1 minute and 8 at 5 minutes. She has been told a score lower than 9 is associated with learning disabilities. Which response is best?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Apgar scores of 7 and 8 are within normal limits, indicating no immediate need for extra care, and this response addresses the mother's concern accurately without dismissing it.

Question 4 of 5

A client with bipolar disorder is taking lithium to control symptoms. Which of the following statements indicates the need for further education?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Lithium requires ongoing monitoring (B is incorrect), as levels and side effects need regular checks. Thyroid tests (
A), avoiding ibuprofen (
C), and hydration (
D) are correct.

Question 5 of 5

The physician has ordered Vancocin (vancomycin) 500 mg IV every 6 hours for a client with MRSA. The medication should be administered:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Vancomycin should be infused over at least 60 minutes to prevent adverse reactions such as red man syndrome.

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